BRAOU PhD Entrance – English, 26 Oct 2026 (Shift 2)

BRAOU PhD Entrance – English

held on 26 Oct 2026 (Shift 2)

Each question carries 2 marks, no negative marking.

Paper 1 (Q1–50) (General),

Q1. Which of the following levels of teaching is primarily focused on promoting critical thinking, independent problem-solving and creative cognitive abilities in learners?

1.         Memory level

2.         Understanding level

3.         Reflective level ✔

4.         Autonomous development level

Q2. A student prefers to work collaboratively as an active member of a peer group, aligning their behaviour with group norms. Which characteristic domain of the learner does this primarily represent?

1.         Academic Characteristic

2.         Cognitive Characteristic

3.         Emotional Characteristic

4.         Social Characteristic ✔

Q3. Unlike adolescent learners, adult learners are typically characterized by which of the following traits?

1.         Dependence on the teacher for direction and validation

2.         High susceptibility to peer group conformity and identity crises

3.         Self-directed learning, autonomy, and problem-centred orientation ✔

4.         Predominant reliance on mechanical memorization and rote-learning

Q4. A professor uses mind-mapping software, digital podcasts, and cloud-hosted learning management suites to deliver and evaluate coursework. This approach falls under which type of Teaching Support System?

1.         Traditional Support System

2.         Modern Non-ICT Support System

3.         ICT-Based Support System ✔

4.         Autonomous Support System

Q5. In the Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) in higher education, a course that must be chosen from a pool of subjects and which may be very specific or specialized in nature is classified as:

1.         Core Course

2.         Elective Course ✔

3.         Foundation Course

4.         Ability Enhancement Compulsory Course

Q6. Which type of evaluation is conducted continuously during the instructional process to monitor student learning and provide ongoing feedback to improve teaching effectiveness?

1.         Summative evaluation

2.         Diagnostic evaluation

3.         Formative evaluation ✔

4.         Placement evaluation

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the SWAYAM platform:

        A. SWAYAM was developed by the Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD) and AICTE to         provide free online courses.

         B. The courses hosted on SWAYAM are delivered through four distinct quadrants including            video lectures and self-assessment tests.

         C. SWAYAM courses are accessible only to PG research scholars in central universities.

         Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.         Only A

2.         Only A and B ✔

3.         Only B and C

4.         All Three

Q8. Which of the following is considered a learner-centred instructional method?

1.         Expository lecture method

2.         Team teaching method

3.         Cooperative learning and project-based method ✔

4.         Direct demonstration method

Q9. The four quadrants of learning defined in the Indian MOOCs framework comprise e-Tutorial, e-Content, Assessment, and:

1.         Live Classroom Streaming

2.         Discussion Forum ✔

3.         Internship Portal

4.         Laboratory Simulation

Q10. Match the Type of Evaluation in List-I with its Description in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Diagnostic Evaluation          a) Determination of terminal learning outcomes and assigning grades

II. Formative Evaluation         b) Identifying persistent learning difficulties and underlying causes

III. Summative Evaluation      c) Determining prerequisite entry skills and knowledge

IV. Placement Evaluation       d) Providing concurrent feedback to improve ongoing instruction

1.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c ✔

2.         I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a

3.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

Q11. Which of the following is a major advantage of Computer Based Testing (CBT) in competitive and entrance examinations?

1.         Subjective evaluation of descriptive essays without automated algorithms

2.         High security, automated scoring, and elimination of human transcription errors ✔

3.         Complete elimination of the need for an internet or network infrastructure

4.         Strict limitation to pen-and-paper optical mark recognition

Q12. In an experimental research study, the variable that is deliberately manipulated by the researcher to determine its effect is called the:

1.         Dependent variable

2.         Independent variable ✔

3.         Intervening variable

4.         Extraneous variable

Q13. What is the correct logical sequence of steps in the scientific research process?

1.         Formulating Hypothesis -> Problem Identification -> Data Collection -> Research Design -> Data Analysis

2.         Problem Identification -> Literature Review -> Formulating Hypothesis -> Research Design -> Data Collection -> Data Analysis -> Report Writing ✔

3.         Literature Review -> Data Collection -> Problem Identification -> Formulating Hypothesis -> Report Writing

4.         Research Design -> Problem Identification -> Data Analysis -> Literature Review -> Formulating Hypothesis

Q14. Match the Research Method in List-I with its Key Characteristic in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Historical Research  a) Control and manipulation of variables to test causal relationships

II. Descriptive Research          b) Systematic examination of past events through primary and secondary documents

III. Experimental Research     c) Immersive study of culture, customs, and shared beliefs of a group

IV. Ethnographic Research     d) Fact-finding enquiries describing the state of affairs as it exists at present

1.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c ✔

2.         I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a

3.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

Q15. In academic citation, what is the key difference between the APA (American Psychological Association) and MLA (Modern Language Association) referencing formats?

1.         APA uses author-page format for in-text citations, whereas MLA uses author-date format.

2.         APA uses author-date format for in-text citations, whereas MLA uses author-page format. ✔

3.         APA does not require a reference list at the end of the paper, whereas MLA does.

4.         MLA lists references alphabetically, whereas APA arranges them strictly by date of publication.

Q16. A researcher investigates to find an immediate practical solution to a specific local operational problem faced by an institution. This type of research is termed:

1.         Fundamental research

2.         Action research ✔

3.         Exploratory research

4.         Historical research

Q17. In a Ph.D. dissertation, the preliminary pages typically include which of the following sequences?

1.         Title Page -> Certificate/Declaration -> Acknowledgements -> Abstract -> Table of Contents ✔

2.         Abstract -> Title Page -> References -> Appendix -> Table of Contents

3.         Certificate -> Title Page -> Chapter 1 -> Abstract -> List of Tables

4.         Title Page -> References -> Abstract -> Certificate -> Index

Comprehension passage 1 (Q18–21)

Higher education institutions globally are undergoing a profound paradigm shift driven by digital transformations and pedagogical disruptions. Traditional lecture-centric paradigms, which positioned the educator as the exclusive repository of specialized wisdom, are steadily yielding to constructivist frameworks where students actively synthesize knowledge through collaborative problem-solving and experiential inquiry. In this emergent ecosystem, the integration of generative artificial intelligence and open-access repositories democratizes information access, thereby shifting the academic premium from mere retention of facts to critical analysis, ethical discernment, and interdisciplinary synthesis. However, this technological transition poses critical challenges regarding educational equity, cognitive overload, and academic integrity. The 'digital divide' is no longer confined to basic hardware infrastructure or physical connectivity; it encompasses disparities in algorithmic literacy, data fluency, and institutional capabilities to personalize instruction. Unless academic governance structures implement inclusive pedagogical frameworks that bridge socio-economic fault lines, technological proliferation risks exacerbating existing inequalities rather than mitigating them. True transformation in higher education demands balancing digital automation with sustained humanistic dialogue and critical inquiry.

Q18. Under the emergent educational ecosystem described in the passage, what has become the new academic premium?

1.         Rote memorization and uncritical retention of facts

2.         Physical attendance in traditional classroom lectures

3.         Critical analysis, ethical discernment, and interdisciplinary synthesis ✔

4.         Complete elimination of humanistic dialogue in curricula

Q19. Based on the passage, consider the following statements regarding the contemporary 'digital divide':

A. It is strictly limited to physical hardware availability and telecommunications bandwidth.

B. It encompasses disparities in algorithmic literacy and data fluency.

C. It involves differences in institutional capabilities to personalize instruction.

Which of the statements given above are correct according to the passage?

1.         Only A and B

2.         Only B and C ✔

3.         Only A and C

4.         All Three

Q20. According to the author, what is the consequence if academic governance structures fail to implement inclusive frameworks?

1.         Technological proliferation will naturally eradicate socioeconomic disparities.

2.         Higher education institutions will completely abandon digital automation.

3.         Technological proliferation risks exacerbating existing inequalities. ✔

4.         Algorithmic literacy will automatically replace all foundational pedagogical methods.

Q21. What is the central theme of the passage?

1.         The complete replacement of universities by artificial intelligence systems

2.         Navigating digital transformation in higher education while ensuring equity and critical humanistic inquiry ✔

3.         The historical superiority of teacher-centric rote learning over open repositories

4.         Technical guidelines for hardware procurement in developing countries

Comprehension passage 2 (Q22–25)

Academic research is grounded in the uncompromising pursuit of truth and intellectual integrity. The social contract between science and society rests upon the premise that scientific claims are rigorously investigated, verifiable, and free from deliberate bias. In recent decades, however, the intense competitive pressure encapsulated in the dictum 'publish or perish' has spawned systemic distortions in scholarly communication. Researchers increasingly navigate incentives tied to journal impact factors, h-index citations, and hyper-competitive research grants, which at times creates perverse motivations favoring quantity of output over methodological rigor. This culture has contributed to the proliferation of predatory journals, questionable research practices, and the so-called 'replication crisis' in empirical disciplines. Questionable practices—such as selective data reporting, p-hacking, and honorary authorship—undermine the cumulative nature of scientific progress. To restore institutional trust, academic bodies must reform research assessment criteria by de-emphasizing simplistic bibliometric indicators and rewarding open science, reproducibility, methodological transparency, and public societal impact.

Q22. Which of the following is cited in the passage as an outcome of perverse publishing incentives?

1.         Elimination of predatory publishing outlets across the globe

2.         A shift toward purely philosophical epistemologies

3.         The replication crisis and proliferation of questionable research practices ✔

4.         Decreased interest in competitive research grant procurement

Q23. Consider the following statements based on the passage:

A. The social contract of science assumes that scientific claims are rigorously investigated and verifiable.

B. Simplistic bibliometric indicators like citation indices always guarantee high methodological rigor.

C. Practices like p-hacking and honorary authorship undermine cumulative scientific progress. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1.         Only A and B

2.         Only A and C ✔

3.         Only B and C

4.         All Three

Q24. According to the author, how can academic bodies effectively reform research assessment criteria?

1.         By exclusively relying on journal impact factors to determine faculty promotions

2.         By de-emphasizing simplistic bibliometrics and rewarding open science, reproducibility, and societal impact ✔

3.         By penalizing researchers who collaborate with international co-authors

4.         By privatizing all open-access scientific repositories and databases

Q25. The phrase 'replication crisis' in empirical disciplines implies that:

1.         Research papers are photocopied without paying copyright royalty fees.

2.         Many published experimental findings cannot be independently duplicated or reproduced. ✔

3.         Printing presses are unable to cope with the excessive volume of manuscripts.

4.         Authors submit identical manuscripts to multiple journals simultaneously.

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding non-verbal communication:

A. Kinesics refers to the study of body movements, gestures, and facial expressions.

B. Proxemics deals with the communicative use of personal space and interpersonal distance.

C. Chronemics refers to the study of vocal tone, pitch, and voice modulation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1.         Only A and B ✔

2.         Only A and C

3.         Only B and C

4.         All Three

Q27. In classroom communication, when a teacher uses technical jargon that students fail to decode correctly, the barrier to communication is classified as:

1.         Physical barrier

2.         Semantic barrier ✔

3.         Physiological barrier

4.         Environmental barrier

Q28. Match the Non-verbal Communication Term in List-I with its Definition in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Paralanguage           a) Communication through touch

II. Haptics        b) Vocal characteristics such as pitch, rate, and tone

III. Proxemics  c) Body language, posture, and facial expressions

IV. Kinesics      d) Spatial distance maintained between communicators

1.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c ✔

2.         I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

3.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b

Q29. The psychological tendency of a receiver to perceive, interpret, and retain messages that align with their existing beliefs and attitudes is termed:

1.         Selective perception ✔

2.         Cognitive dissonance

3.         Information overload

4.         Semantic disruption

Q30. In interpersonal communication, 'meta-communication' refers to:

1.         Communication about communication itself, including cues that interpret how a message should be understood ✔

2.         Sending automated electronic messages to large audiences across different social media platforms

3.         Using high-frequency electromagnetic waves for wireless satellite communication

4.         Communicating solely through computer-generated virtual avatars

Q31. What type of communication takes place when an individual engages in internal reflection, self-talk, and personal cognitive processing?

1.         Interpersonal communication

2.         Intrapersonal communication ✔

3.         Public communication

4.         Transpersonal communication

Q32. Match the Barrier to Communication in List-I with its Example in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Physical Barrier        a) Ambiguous phrasing and poorly understood technical terminology

II. Semantic Barrier     b) Loud environmental noise and defective public address systems

III. Psychological Barrier         c) Rigid hierarchical rules and excessive screening levels

IV. Organizational Barrier       d) Extreme emotional anxiety and preconceived prejudice

1.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c ✔

2.         I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

3.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b

Q33. The term 'Gatekeeping' in mass media sociology refers to the process of:

1.         Constructing physical security checkpoints around broadcast studio towers

2.         Filtering, selecting, and controlling information before it is disseminated to the public ✔

3.         Translating written content into multi-language digital speech formats

4.         Monitoring technical broadband bandwidth usage across regional internet service providers

Q34. Match the Digital Initiative in Higher Education in List-I with its Core Objective in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Shodhganga a) Promoting open-source software tools in education

II. e-Shodh Sindhu      b) Digital repository of full-text Indian electronic theses and dissertations

III. e-Yantra     c) Consortium for providing access to electronic peer-reviewed journals and resources

IV. FOSSEE       d) Project for promoting education in embedded systems and robotics

1.         I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a ✔

2.         I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d

3.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

4.         I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a

Q35. In email communication, the primary function of the 'Bcc' (Blind Carbon Copy) field is to:

1.         Send an encrypted copy that cannot be forwarded by the recipient

2.         Send a copy of the email to recipients without revealing their email addresses to other recipients ✔

3.         Send high-priority urgent emails that bypass the recipient's spam filter

4.         Automatically schedule emails for delayed delivery at a designated time

Q36. What type of malicious software misleads users of its true intent and appears harmless or legitimate, but executes unauthorized background operations once installed?

1.         Trojan Horse ✔

2.         Computer Worm

3.         Macro Virus

4.         Keylogger

Q37. Which Indian digital initiative provides virtual laboratory experiments in various disciplines of science and engineering for remote practical learning?

1.         Virtual Labs ✔

2.         Talk to a Teacher

3.         Spoken Tutorial

4.         e-Kalpa

Q38. In cyber security, the fraudulent practice of sending emails masquerading as reputable organizations to induce persons to reveal personal information like passwords is known as:

1.         Phishing ✔

2.         Spoofing

3.         DDoS Attack

4.         Data Ransom

Q39. How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and associated targets were adopted by the United Nations under the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development?

1.         8 Goals and 21 Targets

2.         15 Goals and 125 Targets

3.         17 Goals and 169 Targets ✔

4.         21 Goals and 200 Targets

Q40. Which of the following is classified as a primary air pollutant?

1.         Ground-level Ozone (O3)

2.         Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN)

3.         Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) ✔

4.         Smog

Q41. Eutrophication in aquatic ecosystems is primarily triggered by the excessive discharge of which of the following nutrients?

1.         Nitrates and Phosphates ✔

2.         Chlorides and Fluorides

3.         Lead and Cadmium

4.         Sodium and Calcium

Q42. Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the Central Government is empowered to take measures for protecting and improving environmental quality. In which year was this umbrella legislation enacted in the wake of which industrial disaster?

1.         1986, following the Bhopal Gas Tragedy ✔

2.         1984, following the Chernobyl Nuclear Accident

3.         1972, following the Stockholm Conference

4.         1992, following the Rio Earth Summit

Q43. Where is the headquarters of the International Solar Alliance (ISA), an initiative jointly launched by India and France, located?

1.         Geneva, Switzerland

2.         Paris, France

3.         Gurugram, India ✔

4.         Nairobi, Kenya

Q44. Which ancient Indian seat of higher learning was renowned internationally for its specialized Buddhist logic, epistemological treatises, and celebrated library complex called Dharmaganja?

1.         Taxila

2.         Nalanda ✔

3.         Valabhi

4.         Vikramashila

Q45. Match the Post-Independence Education Commission in List-I with its Popular Title/Chairperson in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. University Education Commission (1948-49)          a) Dr. D. S. Kothari

II. Secondary Education Commission (1952-53)        b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

III. Education Commission (1964-66) c) Sam Pitroda

IV. National Knowledge Commission (2005)  d) Dr. A. Lakshmanaswami Mudaliar

1.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c ✔

2.         I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

3.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC): A. NAAC is an autonomous body established by the University Grants Commission (UGC). B. The headquarters of NAAC is located in New Delhi. C. NAAC grades higher education institutions based on criteria such as curricular aspects, teaching-learning, and research. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1.         Only A and B

2.         Only A and C ✔

3.         Only B and C

4.         All Three

Q47. In the context of Indian higher education, institutions like Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan and Asiatic Societies represent which stream of learning?

1.         Modern Technical Learning

2.         Oriental Learning Programmes ✔

3.         Non-conventional Vocational Programmes

4.         Paramedical Clinical Training

Q48. Under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, what is the envisioned apex umbrella body for all higher education in India (excluding medical and legal education)?

1.         Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) ✔

2.         National Commission for Higher Studies (NCHS)

3.         University Grants Authority (UGA)

4.         National Academic Accreditation Council of India (NAACI)

Q49. Which of the following Open Universities holds the distinction of being the first Open University established in India (in 1982)?

1.         Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)

2.         Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University (BRAOU) ✔

3.         Netaji Subhas Open University (NSOU)

4.         Yashwantrao Chavan Maharashtra Open University (YCMOU)

Q50. What is the primary function of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) launched by the Ministry of Education?

1.         To allocate mandatory research grants to private non-accredited institutes

2.         To rank higher education institutions in India based on objective parameters like teaching, research, and outreach ✔

3.         To conduct centralized counseling for admission into secondary schools

4.         To inspect and license physical building architecture in state colleges

 

Paper 2 (Q51–100) English

Q51. The term 'hamartia' in Aristotelian tragedy is best understood as

1.         a reversal of fortune

2.         an error of judgment ✔

3.         the recognition of truth

4.         the emotional purification of the audience

Q52. In Greek tragedy, the main function of the chorus is to

1.         replace the protagonist with the antagonist

2.         resolve the central conflict by killing the villain

3.         introduce the comic subplot

4.         provide commentary and a collective perspective on the action ✔

Q53. Read the following passage and identify which figure of speech is most prominently illustrated in the passage?

MRS. BROWN: You always tell the truth, Henry. That is your finest quality.

HENRY: I am glad you think so.

MRS. BROWN: Of course I do. Everyone in the town knows how honest you are.

HENRY: Then I suppose they also know where the missing money went.

MRS. BROWN: Henry! How could you say such a thing?

HENRY: I merely said what everyone already knows.

1.         Dramatic irony

2.         Situational irony ✔

3.         Verbal irony

4.         Personification

Q54. In classical dramatic theory, 'peripeteia' refers to

1.         recognition

2.         reversal ✔

3.         purification

4.         imitation

Q55. A soliloquy is primarily used to

1.         present the inner thoughts of a character✔

2.         advance the plot through dialogue between two characters

3.         provide historical information through narration

4.         address the audience collectively

Q56. Consider the statements:

A. Stage directions can influence the interpretation of setting.

B. Stage directions are necessarily spoken by actors.

C. Stage directions can contribute to the visual meaning of a play.

1.         A only

2.         A and C only ✔

3.         B and C only

4.         A, B and C

Q57. Brecht's techniques that interrupt theatrical illusion are intended primarily to

1.         produce complete emotional identification

2.         eliminate the political dimension of drama

3.         encourage critical reflection on the action ✔

4.         restore classical dramatic conventions

Q58. The term 'recognition' in Aristotelian tragedy refers to

1.         the reversal of the plot

2.         the punishment of the villain

3.         the introduction of the chorus

4.         the movement from ignorance to knowledge ✔

Q59. Which concept is central to Sir Philip Sidney's Apology for Poetry?

1.         Poetry should represent only history

2.         Poetry should teach and delight✔

3.         poetry should be logical

4.         Poetry should avoid teaching

Q60. Which of the following plays was NOT written by William Shakespeare?

1.         The Tempest

2.         Macbeth

3.         Twelfth Night

4.         The Duchess of Malfi ✔

Q61. Iambic pentameter normally consists of ____

1.         four iambic feet

2.         five iambic feet✔

3.         five trochaic feet

4.         six anapaestic feet

Q62. Read the following lines from William Wordsworth's "Daffodils" and identify the figure of speech employed in the expression "lonely as a cloud." "I wandered lonely as a cloud / That floats on high o'er vales and hills."

1.         Metaphor

2.         Personification

3.         Hyperbole

4.         Simile✔

Q63. The 'speaker' of a lyric poem should be distinguished from

1.         the poet as the subject of the poem

2.         the reader

3.         the title of the poem ✔

4.         the metre of the poem

Q64. The concept of the 'objective correlative' is associated with

1.         Matthew Arnold

2.         I. A. Richards

3.         T. S. Eliot✔

4.         F. R. Leavis

Q65. A metaphor differs from a simile because a metaphor

1.         requires the words 'like' or 'as'

2.         directly identifies one thing with another ✔

3.         cannot involve comparison

4.         is restricted to dramatic poetry

Q66. Consider the statements regarding the function of imagery: A. Imagery may appeal to several senses. B. Every image is necessarily a symbol. C. Repeated imagery can acquire thematic significance.

1.         A only

2.         A and C only

3.         B and C only ✔

4.         A, B and C

Q67. A conventional sonnet contains ____

1.         10 lines

2.         12 lines

3.         14 lines ✔

4.         16 lines

Q68. A dramatic monologue is characterized chiefly by

1.         an extended speech revealing the speaker to a listener ✔

2.         a dialogue between two equal speakers

3.         the absence of a dramatic situation

4.         the exclusive use of fourteen lines

Q69. In which poem did W.B. Yeats write the following? "Those that I fight I do not hate, / Those that I guard, I do not love."

1.         Leda and the Swan

2.         Death

3.         He Wishes for the Cloths

4.         An Irish Airman Foresees His Death✔

Q70. Who coined the phrase, 'Willing suspension of disbelief'?

1.         William Blake

2.         S.T. Coleridge ✔

3.         Walt Whitman

4.         Ezra Pound

Q71. A bildungsroman is a novel concerned primarily with ____

1.         the physical development of a landscape

2.         the moral and psychological development of a protagonist✔

3.         the history of a political institution

4.         the structure of a detective investigation

Q72. "All happy families are alike; each unhappy family is unhappy in its own way. Everything was in confusion in the Oblonskys' house. The wife had discovered that the husband was carrying on an affair with their former French governess, and she had announced that she would not live in the same house with him."

The narrative technique used in this passage is best described as:

1.         First-person subjective narration

2.         Limited third-person narration

3.         Omniscient third-person narration✔

4.         Stream-of-consciousness narration

Q73. The distinction between story and plot is most accurately stated as

1.         story is chronological events, while plot is their artistic arrangement ✔

2.         story is dialogue, while plot is description

3.         story is character, while plot is setting

4.         story and plot are always identical

Q74. Match the following novels with their corresponding authors:

Novel  Author

1. Middle March         A. Thomas Hardy

2. Tess of the d'Urbervilles     B. George Eliot

3. Great Expectations C. Charles Dickens

4. Jane Eyre     D. Charlotte Bronte

1.         1–B, 2–A, 3–C, 4–D ✔

2.         1–A, 2–B, 3–D, 4–C

3.         1–C, 2–D, 3–A, 4–B

4.         1–D, 2–C, 3–B, 4–A

Q75. Match the following novels with their corresponding genres:

Novel  Genre

1. Robinson Crusoe    A. Gothic novel

2. Frankenstein          B. Picaresque novel

3. The Pilgrim's Progress        C. Allegorical novel

4. Tom Jones   D. Adventure novel

1.         1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

2.         1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C

3.         1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A

4.         1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B ✔

Q76. An unresolved ending in a short story most directly encourages the reader to

1.         consider possible meanings beyond the explicit ending ✔

2.         ignore the preceding narrative

3.         treat the story as a factual report

4.         assume that the author made an error

Q77. Consider the statements regarding the setting of a novel: A. Setting can shape social relationships in fiction. B. Setting is necessarily decorative. C. Setting can acquire symbolic significance.

1.         A only

2.         A and C only ✔

3.         B and C only

4.         A, B and C

Q78. Identify the novel from its famous opening line: "It is a truth universally acknowledged, that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife."

1.         Jane Eyre

2.         Pride and Prejudice ✔

3.         Middlemarch

4.         Emma

Q79. The term 'stream of consciousness' refers to the representation of

1.         a character's continuous flow of thoughts and perceptions ✔

2.         the author's biography

3.         a sequence of dramatic speeches

4.         the historical chronology of a nation

Q80. A recurring image, object, phrase or situation that contributes to a work's thematic pattern is called ____

1.         a digression

2.         a caesura

3.         a foot

4.         a motif ✔

Q81. The primary function of a thesis statement in an argumentative essay is to ____

1.         state the central theme ✔

2.         provide the bibliography

3.         summarize every source

4.         replace supporting evidence

Q82. An autobiography differs from a fictional narrative chiefly because it presents ____

1.         a work without historical context

2.         a narrative without a narrator

3.         the author's account of his/her own life ✔

4.         a story necessarily written in verse

Q83. Which periodical, founded by Joseph Addison and Richard Steele, was famous for its essays on manners, morals, and everyday English life?

1.         The Examiner

2.         The Spectator ✔

3.         The Tatler

4.         The Rambler

Q84. Who is associated with the statement, scientia potentia, which means knowledge is power?

1.         Alexander Pope

2.         Joseph Addison

3.         Francis Bacon ✔

4.         Richard Steele

Q85. Which of the following essays is associated with Richard Steele?

1.         "The Spectator Club"✔

2.         "The Vision of Mirza"

3.         "A Dissertation upon Roast Pig"

4.         "On the Pleasure of Hating"

Q86. George Orwell's 'Politics and the English Language' examines the relationship between

1.         fiction and autobiography

2.         poetry and metre

3.         drama and performance

4.         language and political thought ✔

Q87. A memoir differs from an autobiography because it

1.         focuses on selected experiences or periods ✔

2.         must narrate every event chronologically

3.         cannot contain reflection

4.         is necessarily fictional

Q88. Who gave this famous definition of the essay? "An essay is a loose sally of the mind; an irregular indigested piece; not a regular and orderly composition."

1.         Francis Bacon

2.         Samuel Johnson ✔

3.         Michel de Montaigne

4.         Joseph Addison

Q89. Travel writing ---

1.         avoids interpretation

2.         lists only geographical distances

3.         connects observation with social, historical or cultural meaning ✔

4.         excludes the writer's perspective

Q90. Who defined the short story as "a piece of fiction dealing with a single situation or episode"?

1.         Edgar Alan Poe ✔

2.         H.E. Bates

3.         Somerset Maugham

4.         O. Henry

Q91. In Saussure's theory, the linguistic sign consists of ____

1.         signifier and signified ✔

2.         phoneme and syllable

3.         subject and predicate

4.         speaker and listener

Q92. A phoneme is ____

1.         a written symbol

2.         the smallest meaningful grammatical unit

3.         a complete utterance

4.         the smallest contrastive sound unit in a language ✔

Q93. A morpheme is best defined as ____

1.         the smallest sound unit

2.         the smallest meaningful linguistic unit ✔

3.         a complete sentence

4.         a unit of punctuation

Q94. Which of the following best defines semantics?

1.         the study of words

2.         the study of pronunciation

3.         the study of meaning ✔

4.         the study of word order

Q95. Code-switching refers to ____

1.         alternation between languages or varieties in communication ✔

2.         replacement of speech by writing

3.         loss of vocabulary

4.         correction of pronunciation

Q96. Linguistics is primarily concerned with the ____

1.         study of literature

2.         meaning system

3.         study of pronunciation

4.         scientific study of language ✔

Q97. Pragmatics is principally concerned with ____

1.         meaning in relation to context and use ✔

2.         physical speech production

3.         spelling systems

4.         historical alphabets

Q98. Communicative competence in language pedagogy emphasizes

1.         memorization without use

2.         effective use of language in context ✔

3.         translation of every sentence

4.         exclusive study of literary texts

Q99. Who among the following is associated with cognitive theory of learning?

1.         Sigmund Freud

2.         B.F. Skinner

3.         Ivan Pavlov

4.         Jean Piaget ✔

Q100. The distinction between 'competence' and 'performance' refers to ____

1.         formal versus informal vocabulary

2.         reading versus writing

3.         knowledge of language versus actual language use ✔

4.         British versus American spelling

Q101. The institutionalization of English in colonial India was closely connected with ____

1.         British colonial education ✔

2.         the Mughal court alone

3.         the Sangam tradition

4.         post-independence education

Q102. Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education (1835) is significant primarily in relation to ____

1.         the abolition of English education

2.         colonial educational policy and English education ✔

3.         the development of Indian cinema

4.         the origins of Sanskrit grammar

Q103. The English Education Act of 1835 belongs to the period of ____

1.         post-liberalization India

2.         the Mauryan Empire

3.         the Gupta Empire

4.         British colonial rule ✔

Q104. Indian English is best described as ____

1.         a variety of English shaped by Indian linguistic and cultural contexts ✔

2.         English used only by British residents

3.         a non-systematic form of speech

4.         a language unrelated to other English varieties

Q105. Who classified world Englishes into 'Three Circles,' namely Inner Circle, Outer Circle, Expanding Circle?

1.         Noam Chomsky

2.         Braj B. Kachru ✔

3.         Raja Rao

4.         R.K. Narayan

Q106. Raja Rao's Kanthapura is particularly associated with ____

1.         American transcendentalism

2.         Victorian detective fiction

3.         Indian writing in English and Gandhian nationalism ✔

4.         medieval English romance

Q107. The expression 'Indian Englishes' emphasizes

1.         plurality and variation in English use across India ✔

2.         the disappearance of English

3.         a single uniform pronunciation

4.         the rejection of multilingualism

Q108. The incorporation of Indian words and idioms into an English-language literary text can function as ____

1.         a rejection of cultural identity

2.         proof of literary failure

3.         a grammatical error by definition

4.         localization and reshaping of the English language ✔

Q109. Who wrote The History of English Literature?

1.         M.H. Abrams

2.         Prasad & Prasad

3.         William J. Long ✔

4.         Chomsky

Q110. When an Indian novelist writes in English by incorporating regional speech patterns, the strategy challenges the idea that ____

1.         regional languages possess literature

2.         English can be used for fiction

3.         English has only one legitimate cultural context of use ✔

4.         translation is possible

Q111. Cultural Studies is concerned with relationships among ____

1.         grammar and punctuation alone

2.         metre and rhyme alone

3.         culture, power, representation and social life ✔

4.         bibliography and footnotes

Q112. Which of the following examines the underlying structures and system of signs that produce meaning?

1.         structuralism ✔

2.         post-structuralism

3.         deconstruction

4.         postcolonialism

Q113. In Cultural Studies, representation refers to ____

1.         memorization of cultural facts

2.         neutral photographic copying

3.         the removal of ideology

4.         the production and circulation of meanings ✔

Q114. Who is widely regarded as one of the pioneers of ecocriticism?

1.         J. Derrida

2.         Cheryll Glotfelty ✔

3.         Roland Barthes

4.         Terry Eagleton

Q115. Gramsci's concept of hegemony helps explain ____

1.         how domination operates through consent ✔

2.         how poems acquire metre

3.         how phonemes are produced

4.         how novels are divided into chapters

Q116. What is a novel, told primarily through a combination of sequential images and texts, called?

1.         Graphic novel ✔

2.         Image novel

3.         Pictoral novel

4.         Descriptive novel

Q117. The encoding/decoding model in media studies is associated with ____

1.         Ferdinand de Saussure

2.         Northrop Frye

3.         I. A. Richards

4.         Stuart Hall ✔

Q118. A subculture may be understood as ____

1.         a biological population

2.         a culture without social practices

3.         a group whose cultural practices differ from those of the dominant culture ✔

4.         a literary genre

Q119. If an advertisement repeatedly associates a product with youth, success and attractiveness, a Cultural Studies analysis would ask ____

1.         whether the product uses correct metre

2.         how such meanings and desires are constructed ✔

3.         whether the slogan is a sonnet

4.         whether the advertisement has enough characters

Q120. Audience studies are important because ____

1.         different audiences may interpret the same cultural text differently ✔

2.         all audiences receive identical meanings

3.         audiences have no role in meaning

4.         only elite readers interpret culture

Q121. Aristotle's Poetics is principally concerned with ____

1.         modern linguistics

2.         the nature and principles of tragedy ✔

3.         postcolonial nationalism

4.         digital humanities

Q122. 'Catharsis' is associated with ____

1.         pity and fear✔

2.         plotlessness

3.         free verse

4.         purgation of emotion ✔

Q123. Samuel Johnson's Preface to Shakespeare is notable for its discussion of ____

1.         phonology

2.         postcolonial theory

3.         representation of human nature and dramatic practice ✔

4.         modernist fragmentation

Q124. Wordsworth's Preface to Lyrical Ballads emphasizes poetry's relationship with ____

1.         scientific experimentation

2.         aristocratic diction alone

3.         ordinary life, emotion and language ✔

4.         stagecraft alone

Q125. For Coleridge, imagination is distinguished from fancy because imagination is ____

1.         a creative and synthesizing faculty ✔

2.         mere mechanical association

3.         a grammatical function

4.         a form of historical research

Q126. T. S. Eliot's Tradition and the Individual Talent is closely associated with ____

1.         the impersonality of poetry ✔

2.         the rejection of literary tradition

3.         the superiority of autobiography

4.         language pedagogy

Q127. I. A. Richards's practical criticism emphasizes ____

1.         authorial biography as the sole evidence

2.         close attention to the actual language and effects of poems ✔

3.         metrical counting without interpretation

4.         rejection of textual analysis

Q128. New Criticism emphasizes on ____.

1.         close analysis of the new theories

2.         close analysis of the text ✔

3.         close analysis of the author's life

4.         close analysis of the new interpretations

Q129. The term 'intentional fallacy' is associated with

1.         W. K. Wimsatt and Monroe Beardsley ✔

2.         Matthew Arnold and John Ruskin

3.         T. S. Eliot and Ezra Pound

4.         Northrop Frye and Cleanth Brooks

Q130. A critic who examines a poem's internal irony, imagery, contradictions and structural relationships is primarily using ____

1.         phonological analysis

2.         biographical determinism

3.         historical census-taking

4.         close textual analysis ✔

Q131. What does poststructuralism question?

1.         Grammatical structures

2.         Postcolonialism

3.         Fixed and stable meaning ✔

4.         chronological sequence

Q132. Jacques Derrida is most closely associated with ____

1.         New Historicism

2.         deconstruction ✔

3.         Russian Formalism

4.         ecocriticism

Q133. Who pioneered the Psychoanalytic Theory?

1.         Michael Foucault

2.         Roland Barthes

3.         Jacques Lacan

4.         Sigmund Freud ✔

Q134. Michel Foucault's work deals with ____

1.         classical tragedy

2.         prosody

3.         discourse, power, knowledge ✔

4.         phonetic transcription

Q135. Feminist literary criticism examines ____

1.         printing technology alone

2.         metre alone

3.         gender, power and representation ✔

4.         authorial handwriting

Q136. Edward Said's Orientalism examines ____

1.         Romantic poetic form

2.         the metre of Greek tragedy

3.         detective fiction

4.         Western representations of the East ✔

Q137. Postcolonial criticism is concerned with

1.         colonial power and resistance ✔

2.         medieval grammar only

3.         formal metre only

4.         autobiography only

Q138. Match the following literary theories with their major originators:

Theory Originator

1. Psychoanalysis       A. Ferdinand de Saussure

2. Structuralism          B. Sigmund Freud

3. Deconstruction       C. Jacques Derrida

4. Reader-Response Theory   D. Wolfgang Iser

1.         1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D ✔

2.         1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

3.         1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

4.         1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

Q139. Match the following works with corresponding authors:

Work   Author

1. Orientalism A. Frantz Fanon

2. The Location of Culture      B. Gayatri Chakravarty Spivak

3. The Wretched of the Earth C. Edward Said

4. Can the Subaltern Speak?  D. Homi K. Bhabha

1.         1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

2.         1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

3.         1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

4.         1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B ✔

Q140. Who wrote the famous statement, "The empire writes back to the centre"?

1.         Edward Said

2.         Bill Ashcroft & Gareth Griffiths ✔

3.         Homi K. Bhabha

4.         Frantz Fanon

Q141. The primary purpose of a research question is to

1.         provide the bibliography

2.         replace the need for evidence

3.         define a focused problem or inquiry ✔

4.         state the conclusion

Q142. The primary sources in literary research is generally

1.         an encyclopedia entry

2.         a textbook about work

3.         a review article

4.         the original literary works ✔

Q143. The secondary sources of research are best described as ____

1.         material that interprets primary sources ✔

2.         the original literary text

3.         the researcher's hypothesis

4.         a bibliography without commentary

Q144. Plagiarism occurs when a researcher ____

1.         quotes and cites a source with citation

2.         uses ideas of others without proper acknowledgment ✔

3.         paraphrases and cites the source

4.         lists sources in a bibliography

Q145. In academic writing, the expression, 'sic' stands for ____.

1.         same in context

2.         so it is written ✔

3.         correctly cited

4.         source in citation

Q146. A research hypothesis is best understood as ____

1.         a quotation from a primary text

2.         a bibliography

3.         a tentative proposition to be proved/disproved ✔

4.         an unquestionable final conclusion

Q147. The full form of MLA is ___

1.         Modern Literature Association

2.         Modern Literary Association

3.         Modern Linguistic Association

4.         Modern Language Association ✔

Q148. If a researcher claims that a novel represents all Indian women are alike, based on two characters, the main methodological problem is ____

1.         overgeneralization from insufficient evidence ✔

2.         excessive citation from primary sources

3.         use of a primary source

4.         clear operationalization

Q149. In research, what is 'Moving from a general principle to a specific conclusion?'

1.         Inductive logic

2.         Deductive logic ✔

3.         Abductive logic

4.         Rational logic

Q150. What is the research, based on systematic observation or evidence collected from experience, called?

1.         Basic research

2.         Empirical research ✔

3.         Applied research

4.         Descriptive research

 

BRAOU PhD Entrance – English

held on 26 Oct 2026 (Shift 2)

Each question carries 2 marks, no negative marking.

Paper 1 (Q1–50) (General),

Q1. Which of the following levels of teaching is primarily focused on promoting critical thinking, independent problem-solving and creative cognitive abilities in learners?

1.         Memory level

2.         Understanding level

3.         Reflective level ✔

4.         Autonomous development level

Q2. A student prefers to work collaboratively as an active member of a peer group, aligning their behaviour with group norms. Which characteristic domain of the learner does this primarily represent?

1.         Academic Characteristic

2.         Cognitive Characteristic

3.         Emotional Characteristic

4.         Social Characteristic ✔

Q3. Unlike adolescent learners, adult learners are typically characterized by which of the following traits?

1.         Dependence on the teacher for direction and validation

2.         High susceptibility to peer group conformity and identity crises

3.         Self-directed learning, autonomy, and problem-centred orientation ✔

4.         Predominant reliance on mechanical memorization and rote-learning

Q4. A professor uses mind-mapping software, digital podcasts, and cloud-hosted learning management suites to deliver and evaluate coursework. This approach falls under which type of Teaching Support System?

1.         Traditional Support System

2.         Modern Non-ICT Support System

3.         ICT-Based Support System ✔

4.         Autonomous Support System

Q5. In the Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) in higher education, a course that must be chosen from a pool of subjects and which may be very specific or specialized in nature is classified as:

1.         Core Course

2.         Elective Course ✔

3.         Foundation Course

4.         Ability Enhancement Compulsory Course

Q6. Which type of evaluation is conducted continuously during the instructional process to monitor student learning and provide ongoing feedback to improve teaching effectiveness?

1.         Summative evaluation

2.         Diagnostic evaluation

3.         Formative evaluation ✔

4.         Placement evaluation

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the SWAYAM platform:

        A. SWAYAM was developed by the Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD) and AICTE to         provide free online courses.

         B. The courses hosted on SWAYAM are delivered through four distinct quadrants including            video lectures and self-assessment tests.

         C. SWAYAM courses are accessible only to PG research scholars in central universities.

         Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.         Only A

2.         Only A and B ✔

3.         Only B and C

4.         All Three

Q8. Which of the following is considered a learner-centred instructional method?

1.         Expository lecture method

2.         Team teaching method

3.         Cooperative learning and project-based method ✔

4.         Direct demonstration method

Q9. The four quadrants of learning defined in the Indian MOOCs framework comprise e-Tutorial, e-Content, Assessment, and:

1.         Live Classroom Streaming

2.         Discussion Forum ✔

3.         Internship Portal

4.         Laboratory Simulation

Q10. Match the Type of Evaluation in List-I with its Description in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Diagnostic Evaluation          a) Determination of terminal learning outcomes and assigning grades

II. Formative Evaluation         b) Identifying persistent learning difficulties and underlying causes

III. Summative Evaluation      c) Determining prerequisite entry skills and knowledge

IV. Placement Evaluation       d) Providing concurrent feedback to improve ongoing instruction

1.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c ✔

2.         I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a

3.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

Q11. Which of the following is a major advantage of Computer Based Testing (CBT) in competitive and entrance examinations?

1.         Subjective evaluation of descriptive essays without automated algorithms

2.         High security, automated scoring, and elimination of human transcription errors ✔

3.         Complete elimination of the need for an internet or network infrastructure

4.         Strict limitation to pen-and-paper optical mark recognition

Q12. In an experimental research study, the variable that is deliberately manipulated by the researcher to determine its effect is called the:

1.         Dependent variable

2.         Independent variable ✔

3.         Intervening variable

4.         Extraneous variable

Q13. What is the correct logical sequence of steps in the scientific research process?

1.         Formulating Hypothesis -> Problem Identification -> Data Collection -> Research Design -> Data Analysis

2.         Problem Identification -> Literature Review -> Formulating Hypothesis -> Research Design -> Data Collection -> Data Analysis -> Report Writing ✔

3.         Literature Review -> Data Collection -> Problem Identification -> Formulating Hypothesis -> Report Writing

4.         Research Design -> Problem Identification -> Data Analysis -> Literature Review -> Formulating Hypothesis

Q14. Match the Research Method in List-I with its Key Characteristic in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Historical Research  a) Control and manipulation of variables to test causal relationships

II. Descriptive Research          b) Systematic examination of past events through primary and secondary documents

III. Experimental Research     c) Immersive study of culture, customs, and shared beliefs of a group

IV. Ethnographic Research     d) Fact-finding enquiries describing the state of affairs as it exists at present

1.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c ✔

2.         I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a

3.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

Q15. In academic citation, what is the key difference between the APA (American Psychological Association) and MLA (Modern Language Association) referencing formats?

1.         APA uses author-page format for in-text citations, whereas MLA uses author-date format.

2.         APA uses author-date format for in-text citations, whereas MLA uses author-page format. ✔

3.         APA does not require a reference list at the end of the paper, whereas MLA does.

4.         MLA lists references alphabetically, whereas APA arranges them strictly by date of publication.

Q16. A researcher investigates to find an immediate practical solution to a specific local operational problem faced by an institution. This type of research is termed:

1.         Fundamental research

2.         Action research ✔

3.         Exploratory research

4.         Historical research

Q17. In a Ph.D. dissertation, the preliminary pages typically include which of the following sequences?

1.         Title Page -> Certificate/Declaration -> Acknowledgements -> Abstract -> Table of Contents ✔

2.         Abstract -> Title Page -> References -> Appendix -> Table of Contents

3.         Certificate -> Title Page -> Chapter 1 -> Abstract -> List of Tables

4.         Title Page -> References -> Abstract -> Certificate -> Index

Comprehension passage 1 (Q18–21)

Higher education institutions globally are undergoing a profound paradigm shift driven by digital transformations and pedagogical disruptions. Traditional lecture-centric paradigms, which positioned the educator as the exclusive repository of specialized wisdom, are steadily yielding to constructivist frameworks where students actively synthesize knowledge through collaborative problem-solving and experiential inquiry. In this emergent ecosystem, the integration of generative artificial intelligence and open-access repositories democratizes information access, thereby shifting the academic premium from mere retention of facts to critical analysis, ethical discernment, and interdisciplinary synthesis. However, this technological transition poses critical challenges regarding educational equity, cognitive overload, and academic integrity. The 'digital divide' is no longer confined to basic hardware infrastructure or physical connectivity; it encompasses disparities in algorithmic literacy, data fluency, and institutional capabilities to personalize instruction. Unless academic governance structures implement inclusive pedagogical frameworks that bridge socio-economic fault lines, technological proliferation risks exacerbating existing inequalities rather than mitigating them. True transformation in higher education demands balancing digital automation with sustained humanistic dialogue and critical inquiry.

Q18. Under the emergent educational ecosystem described in the passage, what has become the new academic premium?

1.         Rote memorization and uncritical retention of facts

2.         Physical attendance in traditional classroom lectures

3.         Critical analysis, ethical discernment, and interdisciplinary synthesis ✔

4.         Complete elimination of humanistic dialogue in curricula

Q19. Based on the passage, consider the following statements regarding the contemporary 'digital divide':

A. It is strictly limited to physical hardware availability and telecommunications bandwidth.

B. It encompasses disparities in algorithmic literacy and data fluency.

C. It involves differences in institutional capabilities to personalize instruction.

Which of the statements given above are correct according to the passage?

1.         Only A and B

2.         Only B and C ✔

3.         Only A and C

4.         All Three

Q20. According to the author, what is the consequence if academic governance structures fail to implement inclusive frameworks?

1.         Technological proliferation will naturally eradicate socioeconomic disparities.

2.         Higher education institutions will completely abandon digital automation.

3.         Technological proliferation risks exacerbating existing inequalities. ✔

4.         Algorithmic literacy will automatically replace all foundational pedagogical methods.

Q21. What is the central theme of the passage?

1.         The complete replacement of universities by artificial intelligence systems

2.         Navigating digital transformation in higher education while ensuring equity and critical humanistic inquiry ✔

3.         The historical superiority of teacher-centric rote learning over open repositories

4.         Technical guidelines for hardware procurement in developing countries

Comprehension passage 2 (Q22–25)

Academic research is grounded in the uncompromising pursuit of truth and intellectual integrity. The social contract between science and society rests upon the premise that scientific claims are rigorously investigated, verifiable, and free from deliberate bias. In recent decades, however, the intense competitive pressure encapsulated in the dictum 'publish or perish' has spawned systemic distortions in scholarly communication. Researchers increasingly navigate incentives tied to journal impact factors, h-index citations, and hyper-competitive research grants, which at times creates perverse motivations favoring quantity of output over methodological rigor. This culture has contributed to the proliferation of predatory journals, questionable research practices, and the so-called 'replication crisis' in empirical disciplines. Questionable practices—such as selective data reporting, p-hacking, and honorary authorship—undermine the cumulative nature of scientific progress. To restore institutional trust, academic bodies must reform research assessment criteria by de-emphasizing simplistic bibliometric indicators and rewarding open science, reproducibility, methodological transparency, and public societal impact.

Q22. Which of the following is cited in the passage as an outcome of perverse publishing incentives?

1.         Elimination of predatory publishing outlets across the globe

2.         A shift toward purely philosophical epistemologies

3.         The replication crisis and proliferation of questionable research practices ✔

4.         Decreased interest in competitive research grant procurement

Q23. Consider the following statements based on the passage:

A. The social contract of science assumes that scientific claims are rigorously investigated and verifiable.

B. Simplistic bibliometric indicators like citation indices always guarantee high methodological rigor.

C. Practices like p-hacking and honorary authorship undermine cumulative scientific progress. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1.         Only A and B

2.         Only A and C ✔

3.         Only B and C

4.         All Three

Q24. According to the author, how can academic bodies effectively reform research assessment criteria?

1.         By exclusively relying on journal impact factors to determine faculty promotions

2.         By de-emphasizing simplistic bibliometrics and rewarding open science, reproducibility, and societal impact ✔

3.         By penalizing researchers who collaborate with international co-authors

4.         By privatizing all open-access scientific repositories and databases

Q25. The phrase 'replication crisis' in empirical disciplines implies that:

1.         Research papers are photocopied without paying copyright royalty fees.

2.         Many published experimental findings cannot be independently duplicated or reproduced. ✔

3.         Printing presses are unable to cope with the excessive volume of manuscripts.

4.         Authors submit identical manuscripts to multiple journals simultaneously.

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding non-verbal communication:

A. Kinesics refers to the study of body movements, gestures, and facial expressions.

B. Proxemics deals with the communicative use of personal space and interpersonal distance.

C. Chronemics refers to the study of vocal tone, pitch, and voice modulation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1.         Only A and B ✔

2.         Only A and C

3.         Only B and C

4.         All Three

Q27. In classroom communication, when a teacher uses technical jargon that students fail to decode correctly, the barrier to communication is classified as:

1.         Physical barrier

2.         Semantic barrier ✔

3.         Physiological barrier

4.         Environmental barrier

Q28. Match the Non-verbal Communication Term in List-I with its Definition in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Paralanguage           a) Communication through touch

II. Haptics        b) Vocal characteristics such as pitch, rate, and tone

III. Proxemics  c) Body language, posture, and facial expressions

IV. Kinesics      d) Spatial distance maintained between communicators

1.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c ✔

2.         I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

3.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b

Q29. The psychological tendency of a receiver to perceive, interpret, and retain messages that align with their existing beliefs and attitudes is termed:

1.         Selective perception ✔

2.         Cognitive dissonance

3.         Information overload

4.         Semantic disruption

Q30. In interpersonal communication, 'meta-communication' refers to:

1.         Communication about communication itself, including cues that interpret how a message should be understood ✔

2.         Sending automated electronic messages to large audiences across different social media platforms

3.         Using high-frequency electromagnetic waves for wireless satellite communication

4.         Communicating solely through computer-generated virtual avatars

Q31. What type of communication takes place when an individual engages in internal reflection, self-talk, and personal cognitive processing?

1.         Interpersonal communication

2.         Intrapersonal communication ✔

3.         Public communication

4.         Transpersonal communication

Q32. Match the Barrier to Communication in List-I with its Example in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Physical Barrier        a) Ambiguous phrasing and poorly understood technical terminology

II. Semantic Barrier     b) Loud environmental noise and defective public address systems

III. Psychological Barrier         c) Rigid hierarchical rules and excessive screening levels

IV. Organizational Barrier       d) Extreme emotional anxiety and preconceived prejudice

1.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c ✔

2.         I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

3.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b

Q33. The term 'Gatekeeping' in mass media sociology refers to the process of:

1.         Constructing physical security checkpoints around broadcast studio towers

2.         Filtering, selecting, and controlling information before it is disseminated to the public ✔

3.         Translating written content into multi-language digital speech formats

4.         Monitoring technical broadband bandwidth usage across regional internet service providers

Q34. Match the Digital Initiative in Higher Education in List-I with its Core Objective in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. Shodhganga a) Promoting open-source software tools in education

II. e-Shodh Sindhu      b) Digital repository of full-text Indian electronic theses and dissertations

III. e-Yantra     c) Consortium for providing access to electronic peer-reviewed journals and resources

IV. FOSSEE       d) Project for promoting education in embedded systems and robotics

1.         I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a ✔

2.         I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d

3.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

4.         I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a

Q35. In email communication, the primary function of the 'Bcc' (Blind Carbon Copy) field is to:

1.         Send an encrypted copy that cannot be forwarded by the recipient

2.         Send a copy of the email to recipients without revealing their email addresses to other recipients ✔

3.         Send high-priority urgent emails that bypass the recipient's spam filter

4.         Automatically schedule emails for delayed delivery at a designated time

Q36. What type of malicious software misleads users of its true intent and appears harmless or legitimate, but executes unauthorized background operations once installed?

1.         Trojan Horse ✔

2.         Computer Worm

3.         Macro Virus

4.         Keylogger

Q37. Which Indian digital initiative provides virtual laboratory experiments in various disciplines of science and engineering for remote practical learning?

1.         Virtual Labs ✔

2.         Talk to a Teacher

3.         Spoken Tutorial

4.         e-Kalpa

Q38. In cyber security, the fraudulent practice of sending emails masquerading as reputable organizations to induce persons to reveal personal information like passwords is known as:

1.         Phishing ✔

2.         Spoofing

3.         DDoS Attack

4.         Data Ransom

Q39. How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and associated targets were adopted by the United Nations under the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development?

1.         8 Goals and 21 Targets

2.         15 Goals and 125 Targets

3.         17 Goals and 169 Targets ✔

4.         21 Goals and 200 Targets

Q40. Which of the following is classified as a primary air pollutant?

1.         Ground-level Ozone (O3)

2.         Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN)

3.         Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) ✔

4.         Smog

Q41. Eutrophication in aquatic ecosystems is primarily triggered by the excessive discharge of which of the following nutrients?

1.         Nitrates and Phosphates ✔

2.         Chlorides and Fluorides

3.         Lead and Cadmium

4.         Sodium and Calcium

Q42. Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the Central Government is empowered to take measures for protecting and improving environmental quality. In which year was this umbrella legislation enacted in the wake of which industrial disaster?

1.         1986, following the Bhopal Gas Tragedy ✔

2.         1984, following the Chernobyl Nuclear Accident

3.         1972, following the Stockholm Conference

4.         1992, following the Rio Earth Summit

Q43. Where is the headquarters of the International Solar Alliance (ISA), an initiative jointly launched by India and France, located?

1.         Geneva, Switzerland

2.         Paris, France

3.         Gurugram, India ✔

4.         Nairobi, Kenya

Q44. Which ancient Indian seat of higher learning was renowned internationally for its specialized Buddhist logic, epistemological treatises, and celebrated library complex called Dharmaganja?

1.         Taxila

2.         Nalanda ✔

3.         Valabhi

4.         Vikramashila

Q45. Match the Post-Independence Education Commission in List-I with its Popular Title/Chairperson in List-II:

List-I    List-II

I. University Education Commission (1948-49)          a) Dr. D. S. Kothari

II. Secondary Education Commission (1952-53)        b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

III. Education Commission (1964-66) c) Sam Pitroda

IV. National Knowledge Commission (2005)  d) Dr. A. Lakshmanaswami Mudaliar

1.         I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c ✔

2.         I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

3.         I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

4.         I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC): A. NAAC is an autonomous body established by the University Grants Commission (UGC). B. The headquarters of NAAC is located in New Delhi. C. NAAC grades higher education institutions based on criteria such as curricular aspects, teaching-learning, and research. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1.         Only A and B

2.         Only A and C ✔

3.         Only B and C

4.         All Three

Q47. In the context of Indian higher education, institutions like Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan and Asiatic Societies represent which stream of learning?

1.         Modern Technical Learning

2.         Oriental Learning Programmes ✔

3.         Non-conventional Vocational Programmes

4.         Paramedical Clinical Training

Q48. Under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, what is the envisioned apex umbrella body for all higher education in India (excluding medical and legal education)?

1.         Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) ✔

2.         National Commission for Higher Studies (NCHS)

3.         University Grants Authority (UGA)

4.         National Academic Accreditation Council of India (NAACI)

Q49. Which of the following Open Universities holds the distinction of being the first Open University established in India (in 1982)?

1.         Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)

2.         Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University (BRAOU) ✔

3.         Netaji Subhas Open University (NSOU)

4.         Yashwantrao Chavan Maharashtra Open University (YCMOU)

Q50. What is the primary function of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) launched by the Ministry of Education?

1.         To allocate mandatory research grants to private non-accredited institutes

2.         To rank higher education institutions in India based on objective parameters like teaching, research, and outreach ✔

3.         To conduct centralized counseling for admission into secondary schools

4.         To inspect and license physical building architecture in state colleges

 

Paper 2 (Q51–100) English

Q51. The term 'hamartia' in Aristotelian tragedy is best understood as

1.         a reversal of fortune

2.         an error of judgment ✔

3.         the recognition of truth

4.         the emotional purification of the audience

Q52. In Greek tragedy, the main function of the chorus is to

1.         replace the protagonist with the antagonist

2.         resolve the central conflict by killing the villain

3.         introduce the comic subplot

4.         provide commentary and a collective perspective on the action ✔

Q53. Read the following passage and identify which figure of speech is most prominently illustrated in the passage?

MRS. BROWN: You always tell the truth, Henry. That is your finest quality.

HENRY: I am glad you think so.

MRS. BROWN: Of course I do. Everyone in the town knows how honest you are.

HENRY: Then I suppose they also know where the missing money went.

MRS. BROWN: Henry! How could you say such a thing?

HENRY: I merely said what everyone already knows.

1.         Dramatic irony

2.         Situational irony ✔

3.         Verbal irony

4.         Personification

Q54. In classical dramatic theory, 'peripeteia' refers to

1.         recognition

2.         reversal ✔

3.         purification

4.         imitation

Q55. A soliloquy is primarily used to

1.         present the inner thoughts of a character✔

2.         advance the plot through dialogue between two characters

3.         provide historical information through narration

4.         address the audience collectively

Q56. Consider the statements:

A. Stage directions can influence the interpretation of setting.

B. Stage directions are necessarily spoken by actors.

C. Stage directions can contribute to the visual meaning of a play.

1.         A only

2.         A and C only ✔

3.         B and C only

4.         A, B and C

Q57. Brecht's techniques that interrupt theatrical illusion are intended primarily to

1.         produce complete emotional identification

2.         eliminate the political dimension of drama

3.         encourage critical reflection on the action ✔

4.         restore classical dramatic conventions

Q58. The term 'recognition' in Aristotelian tragedy refers to

1.         the reversal of the plot

2.         the punishment of the villain

3.         the introduction of the chorus

4.         the movement from ignorance to knowledge ✔

Q59. Which concept is central to Sir Philip Sidney's Apology for Poetry?

1.         Poetry should represent only history

2.         Poetry should teach and delight✔

3.         poetry should be logical

4.         Poetry should avoid teaching

Q60. Which of the following plays was NOT written by William Shakespeare?

1.         The Tempest

2.         Macbeth

3.         Twelfth Night

4.         The Duchess of Malfi ✔

Q61. Iambic pentameter normally consists of ____

1.         four iambic feet

2.         five iambic feet✔

3.         five trochaic feet

4.         six anapaestic feet

Q62. Read the following lines from William Wordsworth's "Daffodils" and identify the figure of speech employed in the expression "lonely as a cloud." "I wandered lonely as a cloud / That floats on high o'er vales and hills."

1.         Metaphor

2.         Personification

3.         Hyperbole

4.         Simile✔

Q63. The 'speaker' of a lyric poem should be distinguished from

1.         the poet as the subject of the poem

2.         the reader

3.         the title of the poem ✔

4.         the metre of the poem

Q64. The concept of the 'objective correlative' is associated with

1.         Matthew Arnold

2.         I. A. Richards

3.         T. S. Eliot✔

4.         F. R. Leavis

Q65. A metaphor differs from a simile because a metaphor

1.         requires the words 'like' or 'as'

2.         directly identifies one thing with another ✔

3.         cannot involve comparison

4.         is restricted to dramatic poetry

Q66. Consider the statements regarding the function of imagery: A. Imagery may appeal to several senses. B. Every image is necessarily a symbol. C. Repeated imagery can acquire thematic significance.

1.         A only

2.         A and C only

3.         B and C only ✔

4.         A, B and C

Q67. A conventional sonnet contains ____

1.         10 lines

2.         12 lines

3.         14 lines ✔

4.         16 lines

Q68. A dramatic monologue is characterized chiefly by

1.         an extended speech revealing the speaker to a listener ✔

2.         a dialogue between two equal speakers

3.         the absence of a dramatic situation

4.         the exclusive use of fourteen lines

Q69. In which poem did W.B. Yeats write the following? "Those that I fight I do not hate, / Those that I guard, I do not love."

1.         Leda and the Swan

2.         Death

3.         He Wishes for the Cloths

4.         An Irish Airman Foresees His Death✔

Q70. Who coined the phrase, 'Willing suspension of disbelief'?

1.         William Blake

2.         S.T. Coleridge ✔

3.         Walt Whitman

4.         Ezra Pound

Q71. A bildungsroman is a novel concerned primarily with ____

1.         the physical development of a landscape

2.         the moral and psychological development of a protagonist✔

3.         the history of a political institution

4.         the structure of a detective investigation

Q72. "All happy families are alike; each unhappy family is unhappy in its own way. Everything was in confusion in the Oblonskys' house. The wife had discovered that the husband was carrying on an affair with their former French governess, and she had announced that she would not live in the same house with him."

The narrative technique used in this passage is best described as:

1.         First-person subjective narration

2.         Limited third-person narration

3.         Omniscient third-person narration✔

4.         Stream-of-consciousness narration

Q73. The distinction between story and plot is most accurately stated as

1.         story is chronological events, while plot is their artistic arrangement ✔

2.         story is dialogue, while plot is description

3.         story is character, while plot is setting

4.         story and plot are always identical

Q74. Match the following novels with their corresponding authors:

Novel  Author

1. Middle March         A. Thomas Hardy

2. Tess of the d'Urbervilles     B. George Eliot

3. Great Expectations C. Charles Dickens

4. Jane Eyre     D. Charlotte Bronte

1.         1–B, 2–A, 3–C, 4–D ✔

2.         1–A, 2–B, 3–D, 4–C

3.         1–C, 2–D, 3–A, 4–B

4.         1–D, 2–C, 3–B, 4–A

Q75. Match the following novels with their corresponding genres:

Novel  Genre

1. Robinson Crusoe    A. Gothic novel

2. Frankenstein          B. Picaresque novel

3. The Pilgrim's Progress        C. Allegorical novel

4. Tom Jones   D. Adventure novel

1.         1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

2.         1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C

3.         1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A

4.         1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B ✔

Q76. An unresolved ending in a short story most directly encourages the reader to

1.         consider possible meanings beyond the explicit ending ✔

2.         ignore the preceding narrative

3.         treat the story as a factual report

4.         assume that the author made an error

Q77. Consider the statements regarding the setting of a novel: A. Setting can shape social relationships in fiction. B. Setting is necessarily decorative. C. Setting can acquire symbolic significance.

1.         A only

2.         A and C only ✔

3.         B and C only

4.         A, B and C

Q78. Identify the novel from its famous opening line: "It is a truth universally acknowledged, that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife."

1.         Jane Eyre

2.         Pride and Prejudice ✔

3.         Middlemarch

4.         Emma

Q79. The term 'stream of consciousness' refers to the representation of

1.         a character's continuous flow of thoughts and perceptions ✔

2.         the author's biography

3.         a sequence of dramatic speeches

4.         the historical chronology of a nation

Q80. A recurring image, object, phrase or situation that contributes to a work's thematic pattern is called ____

1.         a digression

2.         a caesura

3.         a foot

4.         a motif ✔

Q81. The primary function of a thesis statement in an argumentative essay is to ____

1.         state the central theme ✔

2.         provide the bibliography

3.         summarize every source

4.         replace supporting evidence

Q82. An autobiography differs from a fictional narrative chiefly because it presents ____

1.         a work without historical context

2.         a narrative without a narrator

3.         the author's account of his/her own life ✔

4.         a story necessarily written in verse

Q83. Which periodical, founded by Joseph Addison and Richard Steele, was famous for its essays on manners, morals, and everyday English life?

1.         The Examiner

2.         The Spectator ✔

3.         The Tatler

4.         The Rambler

Q84. Who is associated with the statement, scientia potentia, which means knowledge is power?

1.         Alexander Pope

2.         Joseph Addison

3.         Francis Bacon ✔

4.         Richard Steele

Q85. Which of the following essays is associated with Richard Steele?

1.         "The Spectator Club"✔

2.         "The Vision of Mirza"

3.         "A Dissertation upon Roast Pig"

4.         "On the Pleasure of Hating"

Q86. George Orwell's 'Politics and the English Language' examines the relationship between

1.         fiction and autobiography

2.         poetry and metre

3.         drama and performance

4.         language and political thought ✔

Q87. A memoir differs from an autobiography because it

1.         focuses on selected experiences or periods ✔

2.         must narrate every event chronologically

3.         cannot contain reflection

4.         is necessarily fictional

Q88. Who gave this famous definition of the essay? "An essay is a loose sally of the mind; an irregular indigested piece; not a regular and orderly composition."

1.         Francis Bacon

2.         Samuel Johnson ✔

3.         Michel de Montaigne

4.         Joseph Addison

Q89. Travel writing ---

1.         avoids interpretation

2.         lists only geographical distances

3.         connects observation with social, historical or cultural meaning ✔

4.         excludes the writer's perspective

Q90. Who defined the short story as "a piece of fiction dealing with a single situation or episode"?

1.         Edgar Alan Poe ✔

2.         H.E. Bates

3.         Somerset Maugham

4.         O. Henry

Q91. In Saussure's theory, the linguistic sign consists of ____

1.         signifier and signified ✔

2.         phoneme and syllable

3.         subject and predicate

4.         speaker and listener

Q92. A phoneme is ____

1.         a written symbol

2.         the smallest meaningful grammatical unit

3.         a complete utterance

4.         the smallest contrastive sound unit in a language ✔

Q93. A morpheme is best defined as ____

1.         the smallest sound unit

2.         the smallest meaningful linguistic unit ✔

3.         a complete sentence

4.         a unit of punctuation

Q94. Which of the following best defines semantics?

1.         the study of words

2.         the study of pronunciation

3.         the study of meaning ✔

4.         the study of word order

Q95. Code-switching refers to ____

1.         alternation between languages or varieties in communication ✔

2.         replacement of speech by writing

3.         loss of vocabulary

4.         correction of pronunciation

Q96. Linguistics is primarily concerned with the ____

1.         study of literature

2.         meaning system

3.         study of pronunciation

4.         scientific study of language ✔

Q97. Pragmatics is principally concerned with ____

1.         meaning in relation to context and use ✔

2.         physical speech production

3.         spelling systems

4.         historical alphabets

Q98. Communicative competence in language pedagogy emphasizes

1.         memorization without use

2.         effective use of language in context ✔

3.         translation of every sentence

4.         exclusive study of literary texts

Q99. Who among the following is associated with cognitive theory of learning?

1.         Sigmund Freud

2.         B.F. Skinner

3.         Ivan Pavlov

4.         Jean Piaget ✔

Q100. The distinction between 'competence' and 'performance' refers to ____

1.         formal versus informal vocabulary

2.         reading versus writing

3.         knowledge of language versus actual language use ✔

4.         British versus American spelling

Q101. The institutionalization of English in colonial India was closely connected with ____

1.         British colonial education ✔

2.         the Mughal court alone

3.         the Sangam tradition

4.         post-independence education

Q102. Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education (1835) is significant primarily in relation to ____

1.         the abolition of English education

2.         colonial educational policy and English education ✔

3.         the development of Indian cinema

4.         the origins of Sanskrit grammar

Q103. The English Education Act of 1835 belongs to the period of ____

1.         post-liberalization India

2.         the Mauryan Empire

3.         the Gupta Empire

4.         British colonial rule ✔

Q104. Indian English is best described as ____

1.         a variety of English shaped by Indian linguistic and cultural contexts ✔

2.         English used only by British residents

3.         a non-systematic form of speech

4.         a language unrelated to other English varieties

Q105. Who classified world Englishes into 'Three Circles,' namely Inner Circle, Outer Circle, Expanding Circle?

1.         Noam Chomsky

2.         Braj B. Kachru ✔

3.         Raja Rao

4.         R.K. Narayan

Q106. Raja Rao's Kanthapura is particularly associated with ____

1.         American transcendentalism

2.         Victorian detective fiction

3.         Indian writing in English and Gandhian nationalism ✔

4.         medieval English romance

Q107. The expression 'Indian Englishes' emphasizes

1.         plurality and variation in English use across India ✔

2.         the disappearance of English

3.         a single uniform pronunciation

4.         the rejection of multilingualism

Q108. The incorporation of Indian words and idioms into an English-language literary text can function as ____

1.         a rejection of cultural identity

2.         proof of literary failure

3.         a grammatical error by definition

4.         localization and reshaping of the English language ✔

Q109. Who wrote The History of English Literature?

1.         M.H. Abrams

2.         Prasad & Prasad

3.         William J. Long ✔

4.         Chomsky

Q110. When an Indian novelist writes in English by incorporating regional speech patterns, the strategy challenges the idea that ____

1.         regional languages possess literature

2.         English can be used for fiction

3.         English has only one legitimate cultural context of use ✔

4.         translation is possible

Q111. Cultural Studies is concerned with relationships among ____

1.         grammar and punctuation alone

2.         metre and rhyme alone

3.         culture, power, representation and social life ✔

4.         bibliography and footnotes

Q112. Which of the following examines the underlying structures and system of signs that produce meaning?

1.         structuralism ✔

2.         post-structuralism

3.         deconstruction

4.         postcolonialism

Q113. In Cultural Studies, representation refers to ____

1.         memorization of cultural facts

2.         neutral photographic copying

3.         the removal of ideology

4.         the production and circulation of meanings ✔

Q114. Who is widely regarded as one of the pioneers of ecocriticism?

1.         J. Derrida

2.         Cheryll Glotfelty ✔

3.         Roland Barthes

4.         Terry Eagleton

Q115. Gramsci's concept of hegemony helps explain ____

1.         how domination operates through consent ✔

2.         how poems acquire metre

3.         how phonemes are produced

4.         how novels are divided into chapters

Q116. What is a novel, told primarily through a combination of sequential images and texts, called?

1.         Graphic novel ✔

2.         Image novel

3.         Pictoral novel

4.         Descriptive novel

Q117. The encoding/decoding model in media studies is associated with ____

1.         Ferdinand de Saussure

2.         Northrop Frye

3.         I. A. Richards

4.         Stuart Hall ✔

Q118. A subculture may be understood as ____

1.         a biological population

2.         a culture without social practices

3.         a group whose cultural practices differ from those of the dominant culture ✔

4.         a literary genre

Q119. If an advertisement repeatedly associates a product with youth, success and attractiveness, a Cultural Studies analysis would ask ____

1.         whether the product uses correct metre

2.         how such meanings and desires are constructed ✔

3.         whether the slogan is a sonnet

4.         whether the advertisement has enough characters

Q120. Audience studies are important because ____

1.         different audiences may interpret the same cultural text differently ✔

2.         all audiences receive identical meanings

3.         audiences have no role in meaning

4.         only elite readers interpret culture

Q121. Aristotle's Poetics is principally concerned with ____

1.         modern linguistics

2.         the nature and principles of tragedy ✔

3.         postcolonial nationalism

4.         digital humanities

Q122. 'Catharsis' is associated with ____

1.         pity and fear✔

2.         plotlessness

3.         free verse

4.         purgation of emotion ✔

Q123. Samuel Johnson's Preface to Shakespeare is notable for its discussion of ____

1.         phonology

2.         postcolonial theory

3.         representation of human nature and dramatic practice ✔

4.         modernist fragmentation

Q124. Wordsworth's Preface to Lyrical Ballads emphasizes poetry's relationship with ____

1.         scientific experimentation

2.         aristocratic diction alone

3.         ordinary life, emotion and language ✔

4.         stagecraft alone

Q125. For Coleridge, imagination is distinguished from fancy because imagination is ____

1.         a creative and synthesizing faculty ✔

2.         mere mechanical association

3.         a grammatical function

4.         a form of historical research

Q126. T. S. Eliot's Tradition and the Individual Talent is closely associated with ____

1.         the impersonality of poetry ✔

2.         the rejection of literary tradition

3.         the superiority of autobiography

4.         language pedagogy

Q127. I. A. Richards's practical criticism emphasizes ____

1.         authorial biography as the sole evidence

2.         close attention to the actual language and effects of poems ✔

3.         metrical counting without interpretation

4.         rejection of textual analysis

Q128. New Criticism emphasizes on ____.

1.         close analysis of the new theories

2.         close analysis of the text ✔

3.         close analysis of the author's life

4.         close analysis of the new interpretations

Q129. The term 'intentional fallacy' is associated with

1.         W. K. Wimsatt and Monroe Beardsley ✔

2.         Matthew Arnold and John Ruskin

3.         T. S. Eliot and Ezra Pound

4.         Northrop Frye and Cleanth Brooks

Q130. A critic who examines a poem's internal irony, imagery, contradictions and structural relationships is primarily using ____

1.         phonological analysis

2.         biographical determinism

3.         historical census-taking

4.         close textual analysis ✔

Q131. What does poststructuralism question?

1.         Grammatical structures

2.         Postcolonialism

3.         Fixed and stable meaning ✔

4.         chronological sequence

Q132. Jacques Derrida is most closely associated with ____

1.         New Historicism

2.         deconstruction ✔

3.         Russian Formalism

4.         ecocriticism

Q133. Who pioneered the Psychoanalytic Theory?

1.         Michael Foucault

2.         Roland Barthes

3.         Jacques Lacan

4.         Sigmund Freud ✔

Q134. Michel Foucault's work deals with ____

1.         classical tragedy

2.         prosody

3.         discourse, power, knowledge ✔

4.         phonetic transcription

Q135. Feminist literary criticism examines ____

1.         printing technology alone

2.         metre alone

3.         gender, power and representation ✔

4.         authorial handwriting

Q136. Edward Said's Orientalism examines ____

1.         Romantic poetic form

2.         the metre of Greek tragedy

3.         detective fiction

4.         Western representations of the East ✔

Q137. Postcolonial criticism is concerned with

1.         colonial power and resistance ✔

2.         medieval grammar only

3.         formal metre only

4.         autobiography only

Q138. Match the following literary theories with their major originators:

Theory Originator

1. Psychoanalysis       A. Ferdinand de Saussure

2. Structuralism          B. Sigmund Freud

3. Deconstruction       C. Jacques Derrida

4. Reader-Response Theory   D. Wolfgang Iser

1.         1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D ✔

2.         1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

3.         1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

4.         1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

Q139. Match the following works with corresponding authors:

Work   Author

1. Orientalism A. Frantz Fanon

2. The Location of Culture      B. Gayatri Chakravarty Spivak

3. The Wretched of the Earth C. Edward Said

4. Can the Subaltern Speak?  D. Homi K. Bhabha

1.         1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

2.         1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

3.         1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

4.         1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B ✔

Q140. Who wrote the famous statement, "The empire writes back to the centre"?

1.         Edward Said

2.         Bill Ashcroft & Gareth Griffiths ✔

3.         Homi K. Bhabha

4.         Frantz Fanon

Q141. The primary purpose of a research question is to

1.         provide the bibliography

2.         replace the need for evidence

3.         define a focused problem or inquiry ✔

4.         state the conclusion

Q142. The primary sources in literary research is generally

1.         an encyclopedia entry

2.         a textbook about work

3.         a review article

4.         the original literary works ✔

Q143. The secondary sources of research are best described as ____

1.         material that interprets primary sources ✔

2.         the original literary text

3.         the researcher's hypothesis

4.         a bibliography without commentary

Q144. Plagiarism occurs when a researcher ____

1.         quotes and cites a source with citation

2.         uses ideas of others without proper acknowledgment ✔

3.         paraphrases and cites the source

4.         lists sources in a bibliography

Q145. In academic writing, the expression, 'sic' stands for ____.

1.         same in context

2.         so it is written ✔

3.         correctly cited

4.         source in citation

Q146. A research hypothesis is best understood as ____

1.         a quotation from a primary text

2.         a bibliography

3.         a tentative proposition to be proved/disproved ✔

4.         an unquestionable final conclusion

Q147. The full form of MLA is ___

1.         Modern Literature Association

2.         Modern Literary Association

3.         Modern Linguistic Association

4.         Modern Language Association ✔

Q148. If a researcher claims that a novel represents all Indian women are alike, based on two characters, the main methodological problem is ____

1.         overgeneralization from insufficient evidence ✔

2.         excessive citation from primary sources

3.         use of a primary source

4.         clear operationalization

Q149. In research, what is 'Moving from a general principle to a specific conclusion?'

1.         Inductive logic

2.         Deductive logic ✔

3.         Abductive logic

4.         Rational logic

Q150. What is the research, based on systematic observation or evidence collected from experience, called?

1.         Basic research

2.         Empirical research ✔

3.         Applied research

4.         Descriptive research