UGC NET JUNE 2013 PAPER-1
(UGC NET on 30th June, 2013)
1. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format ?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi – Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
2. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
3. A working hypothesis is
(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (4 to 9) :
The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white
marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden,
evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside
the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais
and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other
imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given
specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but
it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular
name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-iMunavvara).
Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal
court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the griefstricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six
months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the
mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had
belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from
the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing
cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price
was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s
further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding
that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within
his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the
Agra fort were constructed concurrently.
Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates
much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated
the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.
4. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral
domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur
(B) Makrana
(C) Amber
(D) Jaipur
5. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A) Shah Jahan
(B) Tourists
(C) Public
(D) European travellers
6. Point out the true statement from the following :
(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.
7. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A) Mumtazabad
(B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad
(D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
8. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632 – 1636 A.D.
(B) 1630 – 1643 A.D.
(C) 1632 – 1643 A.D.
(D) 1636 – 1643 A.D.
9. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed
(D) None of the above
10. In the process of communication,
which one of the following is in the
chronological order ?
(A) Communicator, Medium,
Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator,
Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message,
Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D) Message, Communicator,
Medium, Receiver, Effect
11. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper
in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant
(B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) A.O. Hume
12. Press censorship in India was imposed
during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda
13. Communication via New media such
as computers, teleshopping, internet
and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive communication
(C) Developmental communication
(D) Communitarian
14. Classroom communication of a
teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment
15. ________ is important when a teacher
communicates with his/her student.
(A) Sympathy
(B) Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy
16. In a certain code GALIB is
represented by HBMJC. TIGER will
be represented by
(A) UJHFS
(B) UHJSF
(C) JHUSF
(D) HUJSF
17. In a certain cricket tournament 45
matches were played. Each team
played once against each of the other
teams. The number of teams
participated in the tournament is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
18. The missing number in the series
40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A) 110
(B) 270
(C) 105
(D) 210
19. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which
are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged
in an ascending order. The number at
6th position is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 33
(D) 36
20. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is
100. If c = 70, then the mean of the
remaining numbers is
(A) 30
(B) 85
2
(C) 170
3
(D) 110
21. If the radius of a circle is increased by
50%, the perimeter of the circle will
increase by
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
22. If the statement ‘some men are
honest’ is false, which among the
following statements will be true.
Choose the correct code given below :
(i) All men are honest.
(ii) No men are honest.
(iii) Some men are not honest.
(iv) All men are dishonest.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
23. Choose the proper alternative given in
the codes to replace the question
mark.
Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk, Teacher – ?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom
24. P is the father of R and S is the son of
Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the
sister of S, how is Q related to T ?
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
25. A definition put forward to resolve a
dispute by influencing attitudes or
stirring emotions is called
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Precisions
26. Which of the codes given below
contains only the correct statements ?
Statements :
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method
of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct
method of testing the validity of
categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method the
premises and the conclusion of a
categorical syllogism is
diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the
three overlapping circles are
drawn for testing a categorical
syllogism.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)
27. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A) unity in human nature
(B) integrity in human nature
(C) uniformity in human nature
(D) harmony in human nature
Read the table below and based on this
table answer questions from 28 to 33 :
Area under Major Horticulture Crops
28. Which of the following two years
have recorded the highest rate of
increase in area under the total
horticulture ?
(A) 2005–06 & 2006–07
(B) 2006–07 & 2008–09
(C) 2007–08 & 2008–09
(D) 2006–07 & 2007–08
29. Shares of the area under flowers,
vegetables and fruits in the area under
total horticulture are respectively :
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
30. Which of the following has recorded
the highest rate of increase in area
during 2005-06 to 2009-10 ?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
31. Find out the horticultural crop that has
recorded an increase of area by around
10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
32. What has been the share of area under
fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area
under total horticulture in 2007- 08 ?
(A) 53 percent
(B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent
33. In which year, area under fruits has
recorded the highest rate of increase ?
(A) 2006-07
(B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09
(D) 2009-10
34. ‘www’ stands for
(A) work with web
(B) word wide web
(C) world wide web
(D) worth while web
35. A hard disk is divided into tracks
which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters
(B) Sectors
(C) Vectors
(D) Heads
36. A computer program that translates a
program statement by statement into
machine language is called a/an
(A) Compiler
(B) Simulator
(C) Translator
(D) Interpreter
37. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
38. A Compiler is a software which
converts
(A) characters to bits
(B) high level language to machine
language
(C) machine language to high level
language
(D) words to bits
39. Virtual memory is
(A) an extremely large main
memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary
memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large
main memory.
(D) a type of memory used in super
computers.
40. The phrase ‘tragedy of commons’ is
in the context of
(A) tragic event related to damage
caused by release of poisonous
gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free
access resources.
(D) climate change.
41. Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy
42. Which of the following is a source of
emissions leading to the eventual
formation of surface ozone as a
pollutant ?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
43. The smog in cities in India mainly
consists of
(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt
hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
44. Which of the following types of
natural hazards have the highest
potential to cause damage to humans ?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
45. The percentage share of renewable
energy sources in the power
production in India is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%
46. In which of the following categories
the enrolment of students in higher
education in 2010-11 was beyond the
percentage of seats reserved ?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Woman students
47. Which one of the following
statements is not correct about the
University Grants Commission (UGC) ?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an
Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and
coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan
funds from the Central
Government.
(D) It receives funds from State
Governments in respect of State
Universities.
48. Consider the statement which is
followed by two arguments (I) and
(II) :
Statement : Should India switch
over to a two party
system ?
Arguments :
(I) Yes, it will lead
to stability of
Government.
(II) No, it will limit the
choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong
49. Consider the statement which is
followed by two arguments (I) and
(II) :
Statement : Should persons with
criminal background be
banned from contesting
elections ?
Arguments :
(I) Yes, it will
decriminalise politics.
(II) No, it will
encourage the
ruling party to file
frivolous cases
against their
political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong.
50. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct about a Judge of the
Supreme Court of India ?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is
appointed by the President of
India.
2. He holds office during the
pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending
an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven
misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
51. In the warrant of precedence, the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next
only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
52. The black-board can be utilised best
by a teacher for
(A) putting the matter of teaching in
black and white
(B) making the students attentive
(C) writing the important and
notable points
(D) highlighting the teacher himself
53. Nowadays the most effective mode of
learning is
(A) self study
(B) face-to-face learning
(C) e-learning
(D) blended learning
54. At the primary school stage, most of the
teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than
men.
(B) know basic content better than
men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love
and affection.
55. Which one is the highest order of
learning ?
(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning
56. A person can enjoy teaching as a
profession when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his
colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher
authorities.
57. “A diagram speaks more than 1000
words.” The statement means that the
teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and more in the
class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too much in the class.
58. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information
on a topic.
(B) contains original research as
deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original
research or evaluation of
research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than
one journal.
59. Which one of the following belongs to
the category of good ‘research ethics’ ?
(A) Publishing the same paper in
two research journals without
telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the
contributions of other people in
the relevant field or relevant
prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data
set without discussing your
reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an
author on a research paper in
return for a favour even though
the colleague did not make a
serious contribution to the
paper.
60. Which of the following sampling
methods is not based on probability ?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
0 comments:
Post a Comment