NTA NET DEC-2022 Paper-1 (Gen Paper) held on 01 March 2023 -Shift-1
The following table presents the findings of a
survey into how people travel to work:
|
Number of People Travelling to Work by |
||||
|
Cycle |
Car |
Bus |
Walk |
|
|
72 |
18 |
35 |
55 |
|
Note: (a) 1 in 8 of the people who cycled to work
were found to be over 65 years of age
(b) 1 in 3 of the Cyclists stated that they
travelled to work by bus on rainy days.
Based on the above, answer the question:
Q.1) How many people cycled to work on a rainy day?
1)24
2)48
3)72
4)
64
Answer:
2)48
Q.2) How many respondents indicated that they
cycled to work and were over 65 years of age?
1)
12
2)
9
3)
8
4)
7
Answer:
2) 9
Q.3) Which of the following statements is true?
1)
Slightly fewer than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work
by bus than by car.
2)
Slightly more than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work
by bus than by car.
3)
Slightly more people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.
4)
Slightly fewer people indicated that they travelled to work by car than by bus.
Answer:
1) Slightly fewer than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to
work by bus than by car.
Q.4) The sum of which modes of travelling to work
represents half the number of responses represented in the survey?
A) Cycle and Car
B) Bus and Car
C) Walk and Bus
D) Walk and Cycle
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A and B Only
2)
A and C Only
3)
B and C Only
4)
B and D Only
Answer:
2) A and C Only
Q.5) How many more people indicated that they
cycled to work compared with those who travelled by either bus or car ?
1)
72
2)
35
3)
18
4)
19
Answer:
4) 19
Q.6) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Learner centerd approach is centerd on
teacher needs.
Statement II: Learner centerd approach is centerd
on cooperative determination of subject matter.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the option given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer:
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Q.7) Which of the following is a technique to provide
right kind of support in right amount at right time to increase child’s
competence?
1)
Scaffolding
2)
Assistance
3)
Accommodation
4)
Schemas
Answer:
1) Scaffolding
Q.8) SWAYAM PRABHA is an education learning
platform initiated by DTH channels.
1)
Ministry of Human Resource and Development (Now Ministry of Education)
2)
University Grants Commission (UGC)
3)
Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)
4)
All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE)
Answer:
1) Ministry of Human Resource and Development (Now Ministry of Education)
Q.9) A learner combines her/his previous schemas or
modifies them as per new experiences. The process of combining/modifying
existing schemas and to arrive at new schemas is known as
1)
Accommodation
2)
Assimilation
3)
Adaptation
4)
Equilibration
Answer:
1) Accommodation
Q.10) Which of the following curriculum development
models come under Technical-Scientific Model?
1)
Open Classroom Model
2)
Taba’s Model
3)
Weinstein and Fantini Model
4)
Roger’s Model of Interpersonal Relations
Answer:
2) Taba’s Model
Q.11) Survey research is one of the key methods in
1)
Physics
2)
History
3)
Sociology
4)
Hermeneutics
Answer:
3) Sociology
Q.12) Methods of social research are directly
linked to different visions of
1)
Social reality
2)
Laboratory experiments
3)
Simulations
4)
Virtual reality
Answer:
1) Social reality
Q.13) Grand theories of social sciences operate at
a
1)
Lower level
2)
Simplistic level
3)
Categorical level
4)
Higher level of abstraction
Answer:
4) Higher level of abstraction
Q.14) Which of the following are considered major
types of qualitative research questions?
A) Non-purposive
B) Causes and consequences
C) Predictive
D) Evaluative
E) Descriptive
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
1)
A, B and C only
2)
A, C and D only
3)
A, D and E only
4)
B, C, D and E only
Answer:
4) B, C, D and E only
Q.15) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Time and cost are not relevant in
determining the sample size
Statement II: Unit non-response and item
non-response do not matter in deciding the sampling error.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer:
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q.16) The science of studying the feedback systems
in humans, animals and machines is described as
1)
Feedback science
2)
Experience study
3)
Message Hermeneutics
4)
Cybernetics
Answer:
4) Cybernetics
Q.17) De Saussure labelled language as a
1)
Technical code
2)
Profusion of signs
3)
Verbalism
4)
Macro generaliser
Answer:
2) Profusion of signs
Q.18) Which of the following are the criteria for
public service communication?
A) Personal bias
B) Ideological slant
C) Accuracy
D) Comprehensiveness
E) Separation of opinion and facts
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A, B, C Only
2)
B, C, D Only
3)
C, D, E Only
4)
A, D, E Only
Answer:
3) C, D, E Only
Q.19) According to some experts like Marshal
McLuhan, the following are considered hot media:
A) Telephone
B) Television
C) Radio
D) Cinema
E) Print
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A, B, C Only
2)
B, C, D Only
3)
C, D, E Only
4)
A, C, E Only
Answer:
3) C, D, E Only
Q.20) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Internet itself is a network and also
a model for Cyberspace relations.
Statement II: Global interactive technologies,
aided by the Internet, heralded the arrival of the ‘second media age’ by the
end of the twentieth century.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q.21) The monthly income of a person in the year
2020 was ₹ 65,000 and his monthly expenditure was ₹ 45,000. In the year 2021
his monthly income increased by 15% and his monthly expenditure by 7% What is
the percentage increase in his savings?
1)
33%
2)
31%
3)
35%
4)
28%
Answer:
1) 33%
Q.22) 5/9 of a number is equal to twenty five
percent of a second number. Second number is equal to 1/4 of a third number.
The value of the third number is 2960. How much is the 30% of the first number?
1)
9.99
2)
99.9
3)
89.9
4)
88.9
Answer:
2) 99.9
Q.23) A man invested 1 / 3 of his retirement
gratuity at 6% simple interest: 1/4 of his gratuity at 7% and the rest at 8%
simple interest. If his annual return on these investments is 7012)5, find the
total amount of gratuity invested by the man.
1)
89,000
2)
99,000
3)
95,000
4)
1,05,000
Answer:
2) 99,000
Q.24) If in a certain, Coding language, ‘Cheater’
is coded as ‘ejgcvgt’, then how ‘Preacher’ will be coded in that language?
1)
‘rtgcejgt’
2)
‘qsfbdifs’
3)
‘rtgbdjgt’
4)
‘stgbdjgt’
Answer:
1) ‘rtgcejgt’
Q.25) What number should replace question mark (?)
in the series given below? 7, 10, 19, 46, 127?
1)
202
2)
192
3)
173
4)
370
Answer:
4) 370
Q.26) Which fallacy is committed in the following
argument?
“When I called you, you were neither in your class nor in the laboratory. Why
are you avoiding me?”
1)
Circular argument
2)
‘Red herring’
3)
Complex question
4)
Slippery slope
Answer:
2) ‘Red herring’
Q.27) Which of the following statements are
logically equivalent?
A) Some animals are birds.
B) Some animals are not non-birds.
C) Some non-birds are not non-animals.
D) Some birds are animals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
B and C Only
2)
B, C, D Only
3)
A, B and D Only
4)
A, B and C Only
Answer:
3) A, B and D Only
Q.28) If the statement “no animals are fishes” is
given as false, then which of the following statements can be immediately
inferred to be true?
A) All fishes are animals.
B) Some animals are not fishes.
C) All animals are fishes.
D) Some animals are fishes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
B and D Only
2)
A, C and D Only
3)
C and D Only
4)
D Only
Answer:
4) D Only
Q.29) Which of the following propositions are
contrary to each other?
A) All fishes are mammals.
B) Some fishes are mammals.
C) No fishes are mammals.
D) Some fishes are not mammals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
B and D Only
2)
A and C Only
3)
A and D Only
4)
B and C Only
Answer:
2) A and C Only
Q.30) According to Nyaya (Classical Indian School
of Logic) Which of the following argument involves the fallacy of Anupsamhari
(non-exclusive middle term)?
1)
The hill has smoke because it has fire
2)
Sound is eternal because it is audible
3)
All things are non-eternal because they are knowable
4)
Sound is eternal because it is produced
Answer:
3) All things are non-eternal because they are knowable
Consider the following MS-Excel spreadsheet in
which the population column represents the city’s population in millions of
people:
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
E |
F |
|
|
1) |
City |
State |
Population |
Haryana |
MP |
UP |
|
2) |
Patiala |
Punjab |
8.34 |
|||
|
3) |
Sonipat |
Haryana |
3.86 |
|||
|
4) |
Noida |
UP |
2.71 |
|||
|
5. |
Indore |
MP |
2.16 |
|||
|
6. |
Mandi |
HP |
1.49 |
|||
|
7. |
Sagar |
MP |
1.38 |
|||
|
8. |
Panipat |
Haryana |
1.39 |
|||
|
9. |
Gwalior |
MP |
1.24 |
Q.31) Suppose the formula – IF ($B2=D$1, SA2,0) is
entered into cell D2 and then the cell D2 is copied and pasted to D2:F9. How
many cells in the range D2:F9 contains 0?
1)
0
2)
6
3)12
4)
18
Answer:
4) 18
Q.32) Which of the following statements about email
security best describes email encryption?
1)
This is a self-replicating program that can spread by email.
2)
This disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive
information.
3)
This consists of sending numerous duplicate mails to the same email address.
4)
The email header is changed so that the message appears to have come from
someone else
Answer:
2) This disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive
information.
Q.33) Given below are two statements about music
files:
Statement I: A music clip stored in MP3 format
would take up more memory than the same clip stored in WAV format.
Statement II: Music files stored in MP3 format are
of better quality than files stored in WAV format
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer:
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q.34) Which of the following statements are
accurate?
A) Web 2)0 is a simple static website without any
interaction with its users.
B) Web 2)0 brings people closer together with
information using machines.
C) Web 3)0 brings machines closer together using
information.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A Only
2)
B Only
3)
B and C Only
4)
D only
Answer:
3) B and C Only
Q.35) Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (Output Device) |
LIST II (Description) |
||
|
A) |
Inkjet printer |
I. |
Flat panel display that uses the light
modulating properties of liquid crystals. |
|
B) |
LCD screen |
II. |
Flat panel display that uses an array of
light-emitting diodes as pixels. |
|
C) |
LED screen |
III. |
Droplets of ink are propelled onto paper. |
|
D) |
Laser Printer |
IV. |
Electrically charged powdered ink is
transferred onto paper. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1)
A- IV, B-I, C-II. D-III
2)
A- IV, B-II, C-I. D-III
3)
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4)
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer:
4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Q.36) Atmospheric haze is mainly caused by?
1)
Ultra fine size particulate matters
2)
Oxides of nitrogen and Sulphur
3)
Ozone
4)
Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide
Answer:
1) Ultra fine size particulate matters
Q.37) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Nano scale metallic and bimetallic
particles can efficiently remove common water pollutants such as Poly Chloro
Benzenes (PCB), Organo chlorine pesticides and halogenated organic solvents.
Statement II: Nano scale metallic and bimetallic
particles cannot reduce heavy metals such as nickel, arsenic, mercury etc.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer:
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Q.38) Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The change in sea level at any coastal
location depends on the sum of global, regional and local factors.
Reason R: Therefore, the global mean sea level rise
translates into an uniform rise in sea level around the world
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2)
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3)
A is correct but R is not correct
4)
A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
3) A is correct but R is not correct
Q.39) Oxygen demanding wastes
1)
Decrease the oxygen level in water.
2)
Increase the oxygen level in water.
3)
Do not change the oxygen level in water.
4)
Increase the temperature of water.
Answer:
1) Decrease the oxygen level in water.
Q.40) Match List I with List II
|
I (Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)
number) |
LIST II (Goal) |
||
|
A) |
SDG 2 |
I. |
Sustainable cities and communities |
|
B) |
SDG 3 |
II. |
Zero hunger |
|
C) |
SDG 6 |
III. |
Good health and well being |
|
D) |
SDG 11 |
IV. |
Clean water and Sanitation |
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
2)
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3)
A-II, B-III, C-IV. D-I
4)
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer:
3) A-II, B-III, C-IV. D-I
Q.41) What is the full form of ‘SPARC’?
1)
Standard for Profession of Assessment and Research Communication
2)
Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration
3)
School for Promotion of Assessment and Right to commitment
4)
Social Protection of Advancement and Relationship Complex
Answer:
2) Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration
Q.42) According to NEP 2020, India will be promoted
as a global study destination providing premium education at affordable costs
thereby helping to restore its role as
1)
Economic power
2)
Knowledge Economy
3)
Vishwa Guru
4)
Shiksha Guru
Answer:
3) Vishwa Guru
Q.43) What is the full form of ‘NCIVE’?
1)
Non-Governmental course for the Initiation of Vocational Enhancement
2)
National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education
3)
Non-Governmental Council for the Integration of Veterinary Education
4)
National Commission for the Information of Veterinary Education
Answer:
2) National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education
Q.44) The Government of India created Department of
Science and Technology in the year:
1)
1990
2)
1985
3)
1978
4)
1971
Answer:
4) 1971
Q.45) The ancient system of education in India
included education of which of the following ancient texts?
A) Vedas
B) Brahmanas
C) Upanishads
D) Dharma sutras
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1)
A and C Only
2)
B and D Only
3)
A, C and D Only
4)
A, B, C and D
Answer:
4) A, B, C and D
Read the following passage and answer the question
given below:
Around
the age of 2 children have a sense of intention, at least of their own
intentions. They will announce, “I wanna peanut butter sandwich”. As children
develop a theory of mind, they also can understand that other people have
intentions of their own. Older pre-schoolers who get along well with their
peers can separate intentional from unintentional actions and react
accordingly. For example, they will not get angry when another child
accidentally knocks over their block tower. But aggressive children have more
trouble assessing intention. They are likely to attack anyone who topples their
tower, even accidently. As children mature, they are more able to assess and
consider the intentions of others.
With a developing theory of mind, children are increasingly able to understand
that other people have different feelings and experiences and therefore may
have a different viewpoint or perspective This perspective-taking ability
develops over time until it is quite sophisticated in adults. Being able to
understand how others might think and feel is important in fostering
cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and
encouraging positive social behaviours in general. Some coaching in perspective
taking from the teacher might help if children mistreat peers and the
mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder
Q.46) Children of Which of the following ages would
generally have the best perspective taking ability?
1)3
years
2)
8 years
3)
13 years
4)
18 years
Answer:
4) 18 years
Q.47) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Aggressive children can assess
intention of others with ease
Statement II: Different persons may have different viewpoints.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer:
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Q.48) Understanding how others feel is important in
A) Developing empathy
B) Reducing prejudice
C) Conflict resolution
D) Encouraging Selfishness
E) Enhancing cooperation
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1)
A, B, C and D Only
2)
A, B, C and E Only
3)
B, C, D and E Only
4)
A, B, D and E Only
Answer:
2) A, B, C and E Only
Q.49) Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Older pre-schoolers have better
chances of getting along well with their peers as compared to young
pre-schoolers.
Reason R: Older pre-schoolers generally have a
better understanding of the intentions of others.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2)
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3)
A is correct but R is not correct.
4)
A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Q.50) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A 2 years old child is likely to have
a better understanding of his own intentions than those of others.
Statement II: It is always helpful to coach a child
in perspective-taking if the child has the habit of mistreating others because
of some behavioural disorder.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer:
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
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