NTA NET DEC-2022 Paper-1 (Gen Paper) held on 01 March 2023 -Shift-2
The following Table – 1 and Table – 2
Show the breakup of 4170 vacant posts in six Banks
A-F, and the percentage (%) breakup of the requirement of personnel in six
different cadres in a Bank, namely, IT officers (ITO), Agricultural Field
Officers (AFO), Law Officers (LO), Finance Executives (FE), Technical Officers
(TO) and Probationary Officers (PO), respectively. Assume that these
percentages are the same for all the six Banks. Based on the data in the
tables, answer the questions.
Tables 1: Bank-wise Vacant Posts
|
Bank |
Bank Number of Vacant Posts |
|
A |
800 |
|
B |
940 |
|
C |
600 |
|
D |
820 |
|
E |
450 |
|
F |
560 |
Tables 2:
|
Cadre in a Bank |
Breakup (%) |
|
ITO |
11% |
|
AFO |
35% |
|
LO |
10% |
|
FE |
26% |
|
TO |
8% |
|
PO |
10 |
Q.1) Banks A and C recruited ITOS as per given
requirement. After few days, some of the newly employed ITOS left Bank A and
joined Bank C1. The number of new recruits of ITOS in Bank A and Bank C have
now become equal. The percentage of new recruits who left Bank A is
1)
12.5%
2)
22.5%
3)
39%
4)
78%
Answer:
1) 12.5%
Q.2) By what percent is the number of recruitments
of LOS more/ less in C, E and F taken together than in A, B and D taken
together?
1)
More By 37.11%
2)
Less By 33.22%
3)
More By 33.22%
4)
Less By 37.11%
Answer:
4) Less By 37.11%
Q.3) The ratio of recruitment of AFOS in C and E
taken together with that of D and F taken together is
1)
46:35
2)
233:174
3)
174:233
4)
35:46
Answer:
4) 35:46
Q.4) Banks D and F hired 15% more POS than their requirement.
After one year, the total strength of the staff in both D and F was brought
down to the original strength through retrenchment of some employees. By what
percent is the retrenchment less/more in Bank D than in Bank F?
1)
46.43% more in Bank D
2)
46.43% less in Bank D
3)
43.46% less in Bank D
4)
43.46% more in Bank D
Answer:
1) 46.43% more in Bank D
Q.5) In Bank E, how many more TOS should be
employed than the required number so that the ratio of number of TOs to that of
number of FEs becomes 2:3?
1)
42
2)
34
3)
23
4)
39
Answer:
1) 42
Q.6) Which of the following statements best
describes Brainstorming method of teaching?
1)
Production of large number of ideas
2)
Small step presentation with feedback provided
3)
Content delivery in a lucid language
4)
Theme based interaction among participants
Answer:
1) Production of large number of ideas
Q.7) Which of the following are the main
characteristics of learner centered approach?
A) It is based on rigid curriculum.
B) It is centered on cooperative determination of
subject matter.
C) It is mainly centered on teacher needs.
D) It lays emphasis on variability of exposure
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A, B and D only
2)
A and Conly
3)
B and D only
4)
B and C only
Answer:
3) B and D only
Q.8) The channels of SWYAM PRABHA are uplinked from
BISAG,
1)
Aurangabad
2)
Hyderabad
3)
Gandhinagar
4)
Bangalore
Answer:
3) Gandhinagar
Q.9) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: TPACK (Technological Pedagogical Content
Knowledge) framework has been developed by Mishra and Kochler in 2006.
Statement II: TPACK framework comprises of total
six components.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer:
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Q.10) Which of the following statements best
describes “Summative Evaluation’ in evaluation procedures?
1)
The teacher clarifies the doubts of the students in the class itself
2)
A teacher awards grades to the students after having transacted the course
work.
3)
During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides
feedback.
4)
The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer
session during feedback.
Answer:
2) A teacher awards grades to the students after having transacted the course
work.
Q.12) When the consistency of data collected is
measured at different points of time, it is identified as.
1)
Inter- rater reliability
2)
Test- retest reliability
3)
Split half reliability
4)
Internal reliability
Answer:
2) Test- retest reliability
Q.13) Change of behaviour in people after they come
to know they are participating in a research project to produce results that do
not have validity is known as
1)
Blind effect
2)
Evaluation effect
3)
Hawthorne effect
4)
Demand effect
Answer:
3) Hawthorne effect
Q.14) Some of the threats to internal validity in
research are:
A) Quasi experimental design
B) Pre-Testing
C) Attrition
D) History
E) Maturation
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below semi colon:
1)
A, B and C Only
2)
B, C and D only
3)
B, D and E only
4)
C, D and E only
Answer:
4) C, D and E only
Q.15) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In Focus group discussions, the
moderator is supposed to provide a liberal climate for participants to open up.
Statement II: Participants of focus group
discussions should rant individual experiences for comparison.
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer:
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q.16) In communication, denotation is the level of
1)
Belief
2)
Contrast
3)
Description
4)
Dissent
Answer:
3) Description
Q.17) Symbols provide meaning when used in a
1)
Contrasting style
2)
Random order
3)
Non-specific context
4)
Specific cultural context
Answer:
4) Specific cultural context
Q.18) A hot medium is characterised by
A) Non mechanical components
B) Low Audience participation
C) It envelopes only one sense
D) Large amounts of information supplies
E) High audience participation
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A, B and C only
2)
B, C and D only
3)
C, D and E only
4)
A, D and E only
Answer:
2) B, C and D only
Q.19) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the initial stages, mass
communication was considered as a study of propaganda
Statement II: Now it has its linguistic component
in terms of signs, codes and language
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q.20) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Mass communication supplies an
inventory of public messages and allows for the monitoring of social values.
Statement II: In large scale social settings, mass
media will enable integration of social institutions.
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q.21) An amount of ₹8500 becomes ₹ 9500 in 3 years
time at some simple rate of interest. How much the amount of ₹10,200 will
become in 5 years at the same rate of simple interest?
1)11800
2)
12000
3)
12200
4)12500
Answer:
3) 12200
Q.22) A man looks at the photograph of a person X
and says “She is the daughter of the husband of only daughter of father of my
brother-in-law (Wife’s brother)”. How is the person X related to the man?
1)
Daughter
2)
Sister
3)
Wife
4)
Mother
Answer:
1) Daughter
Q.23) A person starts from point A and walks 30
meters in the North direction and then 20 meters towards West and reaches a
point B) Thereafter, he takes a southward turn and walks 10 meters to point C)
After that, he turns eastward and covers 15 meters to reach point D) Finally,
turning to his right he walks 20 meters, Find the distance from his starting
point to the end point.
1)
4 meters
2)
5 meters
3)
8 meters
4)
10 meters
Answer:
2) 5 meters
Q.24) What number should replace question Mark(?1)
in the series given below.
55, 47, 74, 10, 135, -81, 262?
1)774
2)
-250
3)
343
4)
-343
Answer:
2) -250
Q.25) In a certain code language, the word
TECHNOLOGY is written as ‘ETHCONOLYG’. How will the word GENERATION be written
in that language?
1)
EGENARITNO
2)
EGNERATINO
3)
EGENARTINO
4)
EGENARITON
Answer:
1) EGENARITNO
Q.26) “Critics of Freudian theory should get
themselves psychoanalyzed because opposition to the theory is itself caused by
unconscious resistance arising from the Dedipal complex. Which according to
Freud distorts one’s thinking.” Which logical fallacy is committed in the above
argument?
1)
Appeal to authority
2)
Slippery slope
3)
Begging the Question
4)
Hasty generalization
Answer:
3) Begging the Question
Q.27) Which one of the following propositions is
logically equivalent to the proposition-“Some attorneys are logicians”?
1)
Some logicians are not attorneys.
2)
Some attorneys are non- logicians.
3)
Some logicians are attorneys.
4)
Some non-logicians are not non-attorneys.
Answer:
3) Some logicians are attorneys.
Q.28) If the proposition ‘No frogs are amphibians’
is given as false then which of the following propositions can be immediately
inferred to be true?
1)
Some non- amphibians are not non frogs.
2)
Some frogs are amphibians.
3)
All frogs are amphibians.
4)
Some frogs are not amphibians.
Answer:
2) Some frogs are amphibians.
Q.29) Which of the following propositions are so
related that if one of them is true, the other has to be false and vice-versa?
A) All camels are herbivorous.
B) Some camels are herbivorous.
C) Some camels are not herbivorous.
D) No Camels are herbivorous.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A and D only
2)
B and D only
3)
B and C only
4)
A and B only
Answer:
2) B and D only
Q.30) Which of the following arguments is an
example of Svarupāsiddha fallacy?
1)
The sky- lotus is fragrant because it is a lotus, like the lotus of a lake
2)
Sound is eternal because it is produced
3)
Sound is a quality because it is visible
4)
Fire is cold because it is a substance
Answer:
1) The sky- lotus is fragrant because it is a lotus, like the lotus of a lake
Q.31) Which of the following best describes Web
3.0?
1)
User generated online business
2)
Based on the “intelligent” web where applications use natural language
processing
3)
Collaboration and social media
4)
Refers to static text-based information websites.
Answer:
2) Based on the “intelligent” web where applications use natural language
processing
Q.32) In the context of Information and
Communication Technologies (ICT), which of the following statements is/are
true?
A) In an email system, Bcc: allows the sender of a
message to conceal the recipient entered in the Bcc: field from the other
recipients.
B) Phishing is a malicious program installed on a
system that stays concealed avoiding detection.
C) Spamming is an attempt to acquire sensitive
information for malicious reasons, by masquerading as a trustworthy entity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
B and C only
2)
B only
3)
A only
4)
A and C only
Answer:
3) A only
Q.33) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Mainframe computers have smaller
internal memories than desktop computers.
Statement II: Spreadsheets and word processors are examples
of application software
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer:
4) Statement | is false but Statement II is true
Q.34) ICT is used to control and monitor everyday
activities. Which of the following activities are most likely to use sensors?
A) Designing a master slide for presentation
B) Activating a burglar alarm
C) Opening automatic doors
D) Creating a spreadsheet
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A and B only
2)
B and C only
3)
C and D only
4)
A and D only
Answer:
2) B and C only
Q.35) Which of the following statements about
computer networks are TRUE?
A) An intranet is a public network.
B) The Internet is a group of interconnected
networks.
C) An extranet is an internal network that can be
accessed externally by authorized users.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A and B only
2)
A and C only
3)
B and C only
4)
A, B and C
Answer:
3) B and C only
Q.36) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Rivers and lakes that have low
biological productivity are said to be eutrophic
Statement II: Rivers and lakes that are rich in
organisms and organic materials are called as oligotrophic
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer:
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Q.37) What is flex fuel engine in motor vehicles?
1)
Engines which run exclusively on biofuels.
2)
Engines which are compatible with only 50% biofuel and 50% gasoline
3)
Engines in which biofuels and gasoline can be put in any ratio.
4)
Engines which run on both diesel and CNG.
Answer:
3) Engines in which biofuels and gasoline can be put in any ratio.
Q.38) Which of the following are pathways for
toxicants to enter into our body?
A) Inhalation
B) Absorption
C) Dermal
D) Ingestion
E) Extraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A, C and D only
2)
A and E only
3)
B, C and D only
4)
C, D and E only
Answer:
1) A, C and D only
Q.39) In order to limit the rise in global
temperature to 1)5 °C over pre industrial levels, IPCC indicates that the world
has to reduce the emission of greenhouse gas to the extent of % by the year
2030.
1)
65
2)
50
3)
45
4)
40
Answer:
3) 45
Q.40) Although ozone is a pollutant in the ambient
air, but in stratosphere it is valuable because it absorbs harmful
1)
IR-Radiations
2)
X-Rays
3)
UV-Radiations
4)
Gama- Rays
Answer:
3) UV-Radiations
Q.41) Which of the following specific programmes
are initiated by UGC for the promotion of values and ethical practices?
A) Jeevan Kaushal
B) Deeksharambh
C) Vishwa Bharat
D) Guru Dakshata
E) Vishwa Darshan
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
C, D and E only
2)
A and E only
3)
B, C and D only
4)
A, B and D only
Answer:
4) A, B and D only
Q.42) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Technical education is that which
emphasises on the learning of techniques as technical procedures and necessary
skills and aims at preparing technicians usually above the secondary level.
Statement II: There is no distinction between
vocational education, industrial education and technical education.
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer:
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q.43) Which of the following are the state
universities of India?
A) Sardar Patel University, Gujarat
B) Nagaland University, Nagaland
C) Acharya Nagarjuna University, Andhra Pradesh
D) Gauhati University, Assam
E) Sikkim University, Sikkim
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
B, D and E only
2)
A, B, C and E only
3)
A, C and D only
4)
C, D and E only
Answer:
3) A, C and D only
Q.44) Which of the following are included among the
Institutes of Agricultural Research?
A) Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
B) Indian Institute of Food Technology.
C) Central Agricultural Marketing Department.
D) Indian Dairy Research Institute
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1)
A, B, C and D
2)
A, B and D only
3)
A and B only
4)
A and Conly
Answer:
1) A, B, C and D
Q.45) Given below are two statements:
Statement 1: In ancient India, education was free
Statement II: In ancient India, education was
centralized
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer:
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Read the passage and answer the questions that
follow:
The
process of the imperialist conquest of Asia and Africa was accompanied by
intense rivalries, and conflicts among the European imperialist powers. The
competing claims over colonies often created conditions of war. However,
generally, most of these conflicts were resolved in the conference rooms of
Europe and wars were avoided The European powers settled their rival claims
which country would acquire which territory on the basis of quid pro quo or
‘something for something’, by giving away something in exchange for receiving
something. For example, in 1904, after a long period of conflicting claims,
which had brought them almost to the point of war, Britain and France entered
into a secret agreement whereby Britain was given a free hand in Egypt and in exchange
Morocco was to be given to France When Germany came to know about it, she
demanded that France relinquish her claim to Morocco. A series of international
crises followed, bringing Europe to the brink of war. The Moroccan issue was
finally settled in 1911 when France agreed to give a portion of French Congo to
Germany and Germany informed France that she could do what she liked in
Morocco. In creating these crises and in resolving them, the people of French
Congo or Morocco, whose territories were being bargained, had no say.
Q.46) Which of the countries was allowed to take
control of Egypt?
1)
Britain
2)
France
3)
Germany
4)
Spain
Answer:
1) Britain
Q.47) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Competing claims over African colonies
were generally settled through war among the European powers.
Statement II: France was in conflict only with
Britain over Morocco.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer:
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Q.48) Which of the following countries was allowed
to have colony in Morocco?
1)
Britain
2)
France
3)
Germany
4)
Spain
Answer:
2) France
Q.49) Which among the following European powers
were involved in tussle over Morocco?
A) Britain
B) France
C) Germany
D) Spain
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1)
A and B only
2)
A, B and C only
3)
B, C and D only
4)
A, C and D only
Answer:
2) A, B and C only
Q.50) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: France allowed Germany to exercise
full control over the French Congo.
Statement II: France went to war with Britain in
1904.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer:
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
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