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Saturday, 20 July 2024

NTA NET DEC-2023 Paper-1 (Gen Paper) held on 14th December 2023 -Shift-2

 NTA NET DEC-2023 Paper-1 (Gen Paper) held on 14th December 2023 -Shift-2

Q.1-5 Comprehension

The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by six different students in six different subjects A-F of MCA program in a university, along with the maximum marks in each subject (shown in brackets). Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow.




Question1. How many marks did Anil get in all the six subjects together?

1. 369

2. 463

3. 558

4. 496

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.2. Total marks obtained in all the six subjects together is more than 490 by exactly …………. students

1. Two

2. Three

3. Four

4. Five

Answer:

Explanation:

 

 

Q.3. If M and N represent the average marks obtained by all the six students together in subjects C and E, respectively, then (M, N) =

1. (112, 56.5)

2. (114,55)

3. (115,56)

4. (116, 54.5)

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.4.Marks obtained by Gaurav are ………………  % more than that of Gurjit in all the six subjects together. (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

1. 27.35

2. 24.52

3. 29.45

4. 28.15

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.5. What is the different between the average marks obtained in subjects A and E by all the six students together?

1. 48

2. 50

3. 52

4. 54

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.6. Which one of the following types of assessments would be most beneficial for assessing a student’s ability to debate?

1. Formative Assessment

2. Summative Assessment

3. Ipsative Assessment

4. Performance Assessment

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.7. Given below are two statements:

 

Statement I: Edmodo (online tool) helps teachers to stay in touch with parents, share updates and discuss student progress.

Statement II: Duolingo is an online language learning platform.

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given Below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.8. In self-directed learning, metacognitive knowledge includes:

(A) Contextual knowledge

(B) Factual knowledge

(C) Procedural knowledge

(D) Technological knowledge

(E) Practical knowledge

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (D) and (E) Only

2. (C) and (D) Only

3. (A), (B) and (C) Only

4. (B) and (D) Only

Answer:

Explanation:

 

 

Q.9. Which learning style involves the extent to which students approach learning materials in a way That helps them understand the meaning of the materials:

1. Surface styles

2. Impulsive styles

3. Deep styles

4. Reflective styles

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.10. “When competent readers encounter new sentences in their native language, they read them automatically” is an example of ……….. learning?

1. High-road transfer

2. Near transfer

3. Low-road transfer

4. Far transfer

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.11. Identify the software used for detecting plagiarism:

(A) Mendley

(B) Turnitin

(C) Compiler

(D) Ithenticate

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) and (B) Only

2. (A), (B) and (C) Only

3. (A), (B) and (D) Only

4. (B) and (D) Only

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.12. Which of the following approaches to the analysis of content is based on the study of signs?

1. Semiotics

2. Ethnography

3. Content Analysis

4. Quantitative Research

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.13. Arrange the following in correct sequence according to APA style of referencing:

(A) Title of the research article

(B) Year of publication

(C) Name of journal

(D) Name of author

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)

2. (A), (C), (D), (B)

3. (D), (A), (C), (B)

4. (D), (B), (A), (C)

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.14. If you wish to test whether population mean is lower than some hypothesized value, you would apply:

1. One-tailed test

2. Two-tailed test

3. Half-tailed test

4. Three-tailed test

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.15. Which of the following correctly represents the meaning of the abbreviation “ante” used in academic Writing?

1. Anonymous

2. Before

3. After

4. And others

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.16. All forms of communication are evaluated in relation to:

1. Face to face communication

2. Radio transmission

3. Television entertainment

4. Internet usage

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.17. Which of the following media is often described as ‘one day best seller’?

1. Radio

2. Internet

3. Novel

4. Newspaper

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.18. The Greek rhetorical communication emphasized on the elements of:

(A) Delayed feedback

(B) Lower class language

(C) Logos

(D) Ethos

(E) Pathos

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) Only

2. (B), (C) and (D) Only

3. (A), (B) and (D) Only

4. (C), (D) and (E) Only

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.19. Given below are two statements:

 

Statement I: attitudinal change, if we apply the inoculation theory of communication. When passive defense systems are encouraged, a defensive response will resist

 

Statement II: A strong dose of argument will strengthen the receiver’s immune system.

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.20. Given below are two statements:

 

Statement I: Through feedback, students can later critique their own communication competence outside the classroom.

 

Statement II: Motivational orientation towards communication should be identified by teachers to better the communication competence of the students

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.21. A person travels 365 km in 8 hours in two stages. In the first part of the journey, he travels by bus at the speed of 40 km/hour and in the second part of the journey, he travels by train at the speed of 55 km/hour. How much distance did he travel by train?

1. 165 km

2. 170 km

3. 200 km

4. 164 km

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.22. If the average of 10 numbers is 40 and the average of six of them is 28, then the average of the remaining four numbers is:

1. 52

2. 54

3. 56

4. 58

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.23. 3080 is divided among A, B and C so that half of A’s part, one third of B’s part and one sixth of C’s part are equal. Then B’s part is

1. ₹840

2. ₹960

3. ₹1080

4. ₹720

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.24. What will be the values of P and in the following number series ?

2, 0, 6, 6, 12, 24, P, Q, ………..

1. 48, 96

2. 20, 60

3. 12, 120

4. 48, 50

 

Q.25. ‘A’ sells an article to ‘B’ at 20% profit. ‘B’ sells it to ‘C’ at 15% loss. If ‘C’ pays 510 for it, then ‘A’ Purchased it at:

1. ₹480

2. ₹450

3. ₹500

4. ₹520

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.26. Arrange the following terms in order of increasing abstractness:

(A) Mobile Telephone

(B) Android Phone

(C) Communication device

(D) Telephone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (B), (A), (D), (C)

2. (B), (D), (A), (C)

3. (C), (D), (A), (B)

4. (C), (A), (B), (D)

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.27. Which of the following statements are logically equivalent ?

(A) No metals are gases

(B) No gases are metals

(C) No metals are non-gases

(D) All metals are non-gases

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (D) Only

2. (A), (B) and (C) Only

3. (B), (C) and (D) Only

4. (A) and (B) Only

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.28. Correct Marks: 2 Wrong Marks: 0

“All phenomena in the universe are saturated with moral values. Therefore, we can conclude that the universe for the Chinese is a moral universe”. Which informal fallacy is committed in the above statement?

1. Slippery Slope

2. Begging the Question

3. Hasty Generalization

4. Fallacy of Composition

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.29. Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement “All beverages are liquid”?

1. All non-liquids are non-beverages.

2. Some beverages are liquid.

3. All liquids are beverages.

4. Some liquids are beverages.

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.30. Which of the following arguments is fallatious, as per classical Indian school of logic, because of The middle term being too narrow?

1. All things are non-eternal because they are knowable

2. The hill has fire because it is knowable

3. Sound is eternal because it is audible

4. Wherever there is fire, there is smoke

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.31. Given below are two statements:

 

Statement 1: (0.5625)10 = (0.9)16

Statement II: (0.3)10= (0.4BBB…)16

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.32. Which of the following acronyms is incorrectly matched with its expanded form?

1. IMPRINT-Impacting Research, Innovation and Technology

2. BHIM-Bharat Interface for Money

3. UMANG-Unified Mobile Application for New age Generation

4. PayTM-Pay Through Mobile

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.33. Given below are two statements in the context of digital technologies for entertainment:

 

Statement I: In virtual reality, images generated from a computer are projected onto real life objects or surroundings.

 

Statement II: In augmented reality, a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.34. When watching videos from a web site using streaming technology, which of the following will be Involved 7

(A) DNS

(B) FTP

(C) IP

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) and (B) Only

2. (A) and (C) Only

3. (B) and (C) Only

4. (A), (B) and (C)

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.35.  Match List-I with List – II

List-I (Question)

(A) How many ones are there in the binary representation of the decimal number 512?

(B) If 1 Kilobyte =2x bits, then what is the value of x?

(C) What hexadecimal value is obtained when the two hexadecimal digits A and B are added together?

(D) What is the denary (base 10) value of the binary Number 00010100?

 

List-II (Answer)

(I) 13

(II) 20

(III) 1

(IV) 15

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

2. (А)-(I), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

3. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.36. In air pollution, oxides of nitrogen (NOx) include:

(A) Nitric oxide

(B) Nitrous oxide

(C) Nitrogen dioxide

(D) Di-nitrogen trioxide

(E) Di-nitrogen penta oxide

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) Only

2. (A) and (C) Only

3. (B), (C) and (D) Only

4. (D) and (E) Only

Answer:

Explanation:

 

 

Q.37. Given below are two statements:

 

Statement 1: Increasingly, photovoltaic panels are being used to supplement electrical energy from the power grid.

 

Statement II: The compatibility of photovoltaic panels with power grid is also because it produces Direct Current (DC).

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

 

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.38. Given below are two statements:

 

Statement 1: Rising nutrient levels in a lake change the numbers and types of biota present there.

 

Statement II: Eutrophic lakes normally have dear water and contain little biomass.

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.39. Given below are two statements:

 

Statement 1: The detrimental impacts of air pollution are not limited to human health only.

 

Statement II: Fluorine emitted in the air from various industrial processes has significant phytotoxicological effects.

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

 

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:

Explanation:

 

 

Q.40. Match List I with List-IL.

List-1 (Hazard related term)

(A) Risk

(B) Exposure

(C) Vulnerability

(D) Response

 

List-II (Description)

(I) Actions to mitigate losses

(II) Frequency of events causing losses.

(III) Magnitude of population and structure at risk

(IV) Degree of preparedness

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

2. (А)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

3. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

4. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(1), (D)-(IV)

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.41. The policy of privatization of higher education began with the introduction of:

1. Fourth five year plan

2. Sixth five year plan

3. Eighth five year plan

4. Tenth five year plan

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.42. Science education in India was first started in Calcutta in 1817 at:

1. Surendranath college

2. Ashutosh Mukherjee college

3. St Xavier college

4. Hindu college

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.43. The idea of a national education system in India could get fillip with the transfer of control of education in 1921 to:

1. The British Viceroy

2. Indian ministers of provinces

3. The Christian missionaries

4. European elite

Answer:

Explanation:

 

44. Which of the following universities were established in the same year of 1916?

(A) Bombay University

(B) Banaras Hindu University

(C) Mysore University

(D) S.N.D.T Women University

(E Punjab University

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) Only

2. (B), (C) and (D) Only

3. (C), (D) and (E) Only

4. (A), (C) and (E) Only

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.45. Given below are two statements:

Statement 1: If big corporate houses establish universities in India, quality professional training and education can be given to students.

 

Statement II: It is expected that universities and institutes established by corporate houses will be world leaders in education.

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

 

Q.46-50. Comprehension:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

 

Animals communicate with one another in many interesting ways. These may consist of signs, gestures, looks, sounds, smells or even light produced by the body. Song and dance are the other means of communication.

 

When faced with danger, animals warn others using signals such as mock charges, grimaces or sound. They also call their mates, inform other members of the group about the source of food, advertise territory and “teach the young the ways of the world. Baby birds call their parents for help and attention and demand food.

 

Far from being a silent world, the ocean is a noisy place. Fishes, molluscs, sea lions, walruses, whales and dolphins chatter away in the waters using a variety of sounds-whistles, squeaks, clicks and groans which range from low pitch to ultrasonic sounds beyond the range of human hearing. Whales and dolphins are sometimes called the “musicians of the sea’ as birds are of the sky.

 

Question46. Animals use sounds to:

(A) Advertise territory

(B) Warn of dangers

(C) Call their mates

(D) Invite their enemies

(E) Inform others about source of food

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (B), (C) and (D) Only

2. (A), (B) and (C) Only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (E) Only

4. (C), (D) and (E) Only

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.47.What are the various ways in which animals communicate with one another?

(A) Song and dance

(B) Speech

(C) Signs

(D) Sounds

(E) Words

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (C), (D) and (E) Only

2. (A), (B) and (E) Only

3. (A), (C) and (D) Only

4. (A) and (B) Only

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.48. The musicians of the sky are:

1. Walruses

2. Animals

3. Dolphins

4. Birds

Answer:

Explanation:

 

Q.49. ‘Ultrasonic sounds are sounds which are:

1. Liked by humans

2. Audible to humans

3. Disliked by humans

4. Inaudible to humans

Answer:

Explanation:

 

50. Given below are two statements:

 

Statement 1: Sharks and crocodiles are called the musicians of the sea.

 

Statement II: Baby birds cannot express their needs.

 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement 1 and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:

Explanation:

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