UGC NTA NET PAPER-I General Paper-AUG 2024 (HELD ON 21.08.2024)- SHIFT 2

Q.1 COMPREHENSION (1-5)

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If the export of country A in the year 2024 is 20% more than the combined export of country B in 2022 and the export of country E in 2021 together, then what is the income of country A (in ₹ crore) in the year 2024, if its import is ₹ 184 crore for that year?

1. 106

2. 44

3. 92

4. 68

Explanation:

Combined exports of country B in 2022 and country E in 2021 = ₹100 crore + ₹110 crore = ₹210 crore.

Export of country A in 2024 = 1.20 × ₹210 crore = ₹252 crore.

Given imports of country A in 2024 = ₹184 crore.

Income = Exports - Imports

Income of country A in 2024 = ₹252 crore - ₹184 crore = ₹68 crore.

Hence, the income of country A in 2024 is ₹68 crore.

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Q.2. In the year 2019, if the ratio of exports to imports for country D and country F are 1:2 and 4:1, respectively, then what is the total import of countries F and D together in the same year?

1. ₹ 104 crores

2. ₹ 184 crores

3. ₹ 192 crores

4. ₹ 130 crores

Explanation:

Step 1: Imports of D

Ratio of exports to imports for D = 1 : 2So, Import of D = 90×2/1=180 crore

Step 2: Imports of F

Ratio of exports to imports for F = 4 : 1So, Import of F = 48×1/4=12 crore

Step 3: Total imports of D and F together

= 180+12=192 crore

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Q.3. What was the income of all the six countries together in the year 2023 if the total imports of all these countries together was ₹ 770 cores in the same year.

1. ₹ 250 crores

2. ₹ 320 crores

3. ₹ 560 crores

4. ₹ 480 crores

Explanation:

Total Exports (2023) = 180 + 200 + 130 + 50 + 220 + 240= 1020 crore

Given: Total Imports (2023) = 770 crore

Income (all 6 countries) = Total Exports − Total Imports= 1020 − 770 = 250 crore

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Q.4. Over all the given years, the average export of country E is ………………. % more than the average export of country C.

1. 13 7/11

2. 9 1/11

3. 13 5/7

4. 12 1/7

Explanation:

Step 1: Exports of C over 2019–2023C = 100 + 110 + 140 + 180 + 130 = 660Average of C = 660 ÷ 5 = 132

Step 2: Exports of E over 2019–2023E = 120 + 100 + 110 + 200 + 220 = 750Average of E = 750 ÷ 5 = 150

Step 3: % more

(150−132)/132×100= 13 7/11

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Q.5. What is the approximate percentage increase in the export of all the countries together in the year 2022 in comparison to the year 2020?

1. 40.67%

2. 72.39%

3. 38.89%

4. 62.99%

Explanation:

Step 1: Total export in 2020

= 80 + 50 + 110 + 120 + 100 + 80 = 540

Step 2: Total export in 2022

= 90 + 100 + 180 + 30 + 200 + 150 = 750

Step 3: Percentage increase

(750−540)/540×100=38.89%

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Q.6. 60 persons consume 300 kg of wheat in 40 days. In how many days will 25 persons consume 100 kg of wheat?

1. 28 days

2. 30 days

3. 32 days

4. 35 days

Explanation: 32 days

Step 1: Find the consumption rate per person per day.

60 persons consumed 300 kg of wheat in 40 days. Therefore, the total person-days of consumption is 60 persons * 40 days = 2400 person-days.

The consumption rate is 300 kg / 2400 person-days = 1/8 kg per person per day.

Step 2: Determine the total person-days for the second scenario.

25 persons are consuming 100 kg of wheat.

Let's denote the number of days as 'x'.

The total person-days will be 25x.

Step 3: Set up a proportion and solve for x.

We know that the consumption rate remains constant. Therefore, we can set up the following proportion:

300 kg/2400 person-days=100 kg/25x person-days2400 person-days300 kg​=25x person-days100 kg​

Cross-multiplying, we get:

300×25x=100×2400

7500x=240000

x=240000/7500

x=32

Therefore, it will take 25 persons 32 days to consume 100 kg of wheat.

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Q.7. A British Official of the East India company who was interested in higher learning in India was

1. Francis Gladwin

2. William Ward

3. William Adam

4. William Jones

Explanation:

William Jones was a British philologist, judge, and scholar who served as a judge in the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William in Bengal during the British Raj. He was deeply interested in Indian languages and culture, and played a significant role in establishing Orientalist studies in India. He is particularly remembered for founding the Asiatic Society of Bengal(1784), which greatly contributed to the study and understanding of Indian history, literature, and culture.

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Q.8. Which of the following are considered hot media?

A. Telephone

B. Television

C. Radio

D. Cinema

E. Photographs



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C only

2. B, C, D only

3. C, D, E only

4. A, D, E only

Explanation: (C, D, E only)

This is based on Marshall McLuhan's theory of "hot" and "cool" media. McLuhan categorized media based on the level of audience participation required. "Hot" media are those that engage one sense to a high degree, leaving less room for audience interpretation or completion. "Cool" media, conversely, engage the senses less completely, requiring more active participation from the audience to fill in the gaps.

C. Radio: Radio is considered a hot medium because it primarily engages the sense of hearing to a high degree. The listener receives a complete and highly detailed auditory experience, leaving little room for active interpretation.

D. Cinema: Cinema (movies) is a hot medium because it intensely engages both sight and sound. The audience is passively receiving a high definition of sensory information.

E. Photographs: Photographs are also considered hot media because they provide a high level of visual detail, leaving less to the viewer's imagination than a sketch, for instance. The information is largely complete and self-contained.

A. Telephone: The telephone is a cool medium. While it engages hearing, it involves more active participation from the listener as they fill in contextual information and nonverbal cues absent in a face-to-face conversation.

B. Television: Television sits somewhere in the middle, depending on the content. While visually rich, it often leaves more room for interpretation than cinema, making it arguably cooler.

Therefore, only Radio, Cinema, and Photographs consistently align with McLuhan's definition of hot media.

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Q.9. In a certain coding language, the word “SLIGHT is coded as “UJKEIR”, then the sword. ‘GROUND will be coded as :

1. ITQWPF

2. ISPVOH

3. IQRTOB

4. IPQSPB

Explanation:

A consistent rule is alternating +2,−2,… in alphabet positions.Applying to GROUND gives:

G+2=I, 

R−2=P, 

O+2=Q, 

U−2=S, 

N+2=P, 

D−2=B

→ IPQSPB (option 4).

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Q.10. Which of the following two statements cannot both be true but can both be false ?

A. All Monkeys are apes.

B. Some monkeys are apes.

C. Some monkeys are not apes.

D. No monkeys are apes.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A and D only

2. A and C only

3. B and C only

4. B and D only

Explanation:

The correct answer is A and D only

Let's analyze the statements:

Statement A: All monkeys are apes. This is factually incorrect. Monkeys are primates, but not all primates are apes. Apes are a specific type of primate.

Statement B: Some monkeys are apes. This is also factually incorrect, for the same reason as above. However, it's *possible* that a few, undefined monkeys could share some characteristics with apes, making this a less definitive false statement than A or D.

Statement C: Some monkeys are not apes. This is factually correct. The vast majority of monkeys are not apes.

Statement D: No monkeys are apes. This statement is also factually incorrect because the relationship between monkeys and apes is more complex than a simple "no" or "yes."

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Q.11. Three successive discounts of 10% 20% and 30% on the marked price of an item are equivalent to a single discount of

1. 60%

2. 50.4%

3. 54.6%

4. 49.6%

Explanation:

Single-equivalent discount:

=1−(0.9×0.8×0.7)

=1−0.504

=0.496

=49.6%

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Q.12. which of the following represents the epistemological orientation of quantitative research?

1. Interpretivism

2. Constructionism

3. Positivism

4. Inductivism

Explanation:

Quantitative research is fundamentally aligned with a positivist epistemology. Positivism, in the context of research, asserts that reality is objective and can be measured and understood through empirical observation and experimentation. 

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Q.13. By selling 35 eggs 20 for Rs 30, a man loses 25%. How many eggs should he sell for Rs 144 to gain 20%?

1. 85

2. 95

3. 105

4. 115

Explanation:

Step 1: Find the cost price of 35 eggs.

Let the cost price of 35 eggs be C. The selling price is Rs 30, and the loss is 25%. We can use the formula:

SellingPrice=CostPrice×(1−LossPercentage)

Substituting the values, we get:

30=C×(1−0.25)

30=C×0.75

C=30/0.75=40

Therefore, the cost price of 35 eggs is Rs 40.

Step 2: Find the cost price of one egg.

Cost price of one egg =40/35=8/7

Step 3: Find the selling price of one egg to gain 20%.

Let the selling price of one egg to gain 20% be SS. We can use the formula:

SellingPrice=CostPrice×(1+GainPercentage)

Substituting values:

S=8/7×(1+0.20)

S=8/7×1.20=9.6/7

Step 4: Find the number of eggs to be sold for Rs 144 to gain 20%.

Let the number of eggs be x.

Total selling price =x×S=144

x×9.6/7=144

x=144×7/9.6

=144×70/96

=96100/80​=105

Therefore, he should sell 105 eggs for Rs 144 to gain 20%.



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Q.14. Which of the following social sciences have contributed much to the knowledge of mass communication”

A. Anthropology

B. Sociology

C. Psychology

D. Social medicine

E. Defence studies



Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A. D. E only

2. C. D. E only

3. B. C. D only

4. A, B, C only

Explanation: (A, B, C only)

anthropology, sociology, and psychology have made significant contributions to the understanding of mass communication.

Anthropology: Contributes to understanding cultural influences on media consumption, the creation of media narratives, and cross-cultural communication patterns.

Sociology: Provides frameworks for analyzing the social structures and relationships impacted by mass media, studying the influence of media on social behavior and attitudes, and examining media ownership and control.

Psychology: Offers insights into individual media consumption behavior, the effects of media messages on attitudes and beliefs, persuasion, and the psychological impact of media exposure.

Therefore, option 4 (A, B, C only) is the most accurate.

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Q.15. Which higher-order knowledge can make the difference between how well and quickly one’s students learn material

1. Declarative

2. Rote

3. Metacognition

4. Procedural

Explanation: Metacognition refers to "thinking about thinking."

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Q.16. Which of the following statements are logically equivalent.

A. No monkeys are felines.

B. Some monkeys are felines.

C. Some felines are monkeys.

D. Some monkeys are not feline.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A and D only

2. B and C only

3. B and D only

4. B, C and D only

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

A. No monkeys are felines. This is a universal negative statement.

B. Some monkeys are felines. This is a particular affirmative statement.

C. Some felines are monkeys. This is also a particular affirmative statement.

D. Some monkeys are not felines. This is a particular negative statement.

Statements B and C are logically equivalent. 

“Some monkeys are felines” and “Some felines are monkeys” are equivalent (conversion).Correct: B and C only (option 2).

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Q.17. The approach in which researchers use the existing data to create groups for comparison is called

1. Operational

2. Ex Post facto

3. Experimental

4. Quasi-experimental

Explanation: Ex Post facto (After the fact)

Ex post facto research is a type of research design where researchers gather data after the fact—that is, after the events or phenomena of interest have already occurred.

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Q.18. In communication, a text is a product of.

1. Non-responsiveness

2. Military exercises

3. Social interaction

4. Neurological research

Explanation: (Social interaction)

Texts, in the context of communication, are fundamentally a result of social interaction. They are created to convey information, express ideas, or establish relationships between individuals or groups.

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Q.19. If the statement “No monkeys are feline.” Is given as true then which of the following statements can be inferred to be true?

1. Some monkeys are felines

2. Some felines are monkeys

3. All felines are monkeys

4. Some monkeys are not feline

Explanation:

Let's analyze the options:

Some monkeys are felines: This contradicts the given statement. If no monkeys are felines, then it's impossible for some monkeys to be felines.

Some felines are monkeys: This also contradicts the given statement for the same reason as above.

All felines are monkeys: This is a much stronger claim than the given statement and is also false.

Some monkeys are not feline: This statement is a direct consequence of the given statement. If *no* monkeys are feline, then it logically follows that *some* monkeys are not feline. This is the contrapositive of the original statement and is therefore true.

Therefore, the only statement that can be logically inferred as true is "Some monkeys are not feline".

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Q.20. The components of quality education identified in the national education policy of 2020 are:

A. Political affiliation

B. Curriculum

C. Pedagogy

D. Continuous assessment

E. Higher fee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. B only

2. B. C. D only

3. C, D, E only

4. A, C. E only

Explanation:

The correct answer is 

B, C, D only

The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 in India emphasizes several key components for ensuring quality education. Let's analyze the options provided:

A. Political Affiliation: This is incorrect. NEP 2020 focuses on educational content and pedagogy, not political leaning.

B. Curriculum: This is a core component. NEP 2020 advocates for a revised and more holistic curriculum that fosters critical thinking and creativity.

C. Pedagogy: Correct. The policy stresses the importance of effective teaching methods and learner-centered approaches.

D. Continuous Assessment: Correct. NEP 2020 emphasizes continuous and comprehensive evaluation rather than solely relying on final examinations.

E. Higher Fee: Incorrect. The policy aims to improve access to quality education, not necessarily increase fees.

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Q.21. In which type of assessment do students measure their own progress against their previous performance rather than against external criteria or peers?

1. Peer Assessment

2. Ipsative Assessment

3. Formative Assessment

4. Summative Assessment

Explanation: (Ipsative Assessment)

Ipsative assessment is a type of assessment where a student's performance is measured against their own previous performance, rather than against external criteria or the performance of their peers. It focuses on individual growth and improvement over time. This contrasts with normative assessment (comparing to others) and criterion-referenced assessment (comparing to a standard).

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Q.22. A measure of the consistency of observations of a single situation made by different people refers to

1. Construct validity

2. Internal validity

3. Split-Half reliability

4. Inter-rator reliability

Explanation: (Interrater reliability)

Interrator reliability, also known as inter-rater reliability, refers to the degree of agreement among raters. It assesses the consistency of observations made by different people observing the same situation or event. 

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Q.23. Identify the nominal variables.

A. Gender

B. Annoyance level

C. Caste

D. Temperature in Kelvin

E. Economic status



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C and D only

2. A and C only

3. B and E only

4. A, B, C and E only

Explanation: (A and C only)

Nominal variables are categorical variables that do not have an inherent order or ranking. Let's analyze each option:

A. Gender: Gender (male, female, etc.) is a categorical variable with no inherent order. It's a nominal variable.

B. Annoyance level: Annoyance level can be measured on an ordinal scale (e.g., low, medium, high), implying an order. It's not nominal.

C. Caste: Caste is a categorical variable without any inherent order. It's a nominal variable.

D. Temperature in Kelvin: Temperature in Kelvin is a ratio variable, representing a continuous quantity with a true zero point. It's not nominal.

E. Economic status: Economic status (e.g., low, middle, high) is often treated as ordinal due to the implied ranking, not nominal.

Therefore, only Gender (A) and Caste (C) are nominal variables.

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Q.24. Which of the following are the interactive whiteboard softwares that allow teachers to create digital lessons, annotate documents and collaborate with students in real time?

A. Jamboard

B. Camtasia

C. Stormboard

D. Concept board

E. Plotagon

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. B and C only

2. A. C and D only

3. C, D and E only

4. A, B and E only

Explanation: (A, C, and D only)

A. Jamboard: Google Jamboard is an interactive whiteboard that allows for real-time collaboration, annotation, and lesson creation. It's specifically designed for these educational purposes.

B. Camtasia: Camtasia is primarily screen recording and video editing software. While it can be used to create video lessons, it's not an interactive whiteboard and doesn't offer the same real-time collaboration features.

C. Stormboard: Stormboard is a collaborative whiteboard platform facilitating brainstorming and idea generation. It supports real-time collaboration and annotation, making it suitable for interactive lessons.

D. Conceptboard: Conceptboard is another collaborative online whiteboard that enables real-time co-creation, annotation, and sharing of digital content, ideal for interactive teaching.

E. Plotagon: Plotagon is software for creating animated videos, not an interactive whiteboard for real-time collaboration and annotation.

Based on the functionalities of each software, only Jamboard (A), Stormboard (C), and Conceptboard (D) meet all the criteria specified in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is A, C, and D only.

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Q.25. The National Education policy, 2020 supported the idea of:

1. Science only education

2. Fragmented research

3. Rigorous specialization

4. Segregating humanities and science

Explanation:

The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 advocates for a multidisciplinary approach to education, encouraging students to explore various fields of study. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect because they contradict the core principles of the NEP 2020.

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Q.26. Burning of solid waste, such as cans, batteries, plastic etc. generate

A. Microplastics

B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

C. Dioxins

D. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)

E. Halons



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C and D only

2. A. C and D only

3. B, D and E only

4. B, C and E only

Explanation:

The correct answer is 

A, C and D only

The burning of solid waste, including cans, batteries, and plastics, leads to the formation of several harmful pollutants. Let's analyze the given options:

A. Microplastics: The incineration of plastic waste is a significant source of microplastic pollution. Plastics break down into smaller particles during combustion, contributing to air and soil contamination.

B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs): CFCs are not directly produced by the burning of solid waste. They are synthetic compounds primarily used in refrigerants and aerosols.

C. Dioxins: Burning certain types of waste, especially plastics containing chlorine, can produce dioxins. These are highly toxic compounds known for their environmental and health impacts.

D. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs): Similar to dioxins, PCBs are persistent organic pollutants that can be released during the incomplete combustion of materials containing these compounds. They are often found in older electrical equipment and some plastics.

E. Halons: Halons are also not directly generated by the burning of common solid waste. They are primarily used in fire suppression systems.

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Q.27. Match the List-I with List-II

LIST I Concept

A. Attention economy

B. Narrow casting

C. Synchronous audience

D. Peculiar form of presentness



LIST II Related medium

I. Public speech

II. Television

III. Internet

IV. FM Radio



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Explanation: (A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II)

Attention economy: This concept often relates to digital platforms and the Internet, where capturing the user's attention is crucial. Thus, it aligns best with III - Internet.

Narrow casting: This term refers to targeting a specific audience segment rather than a general one, as seen in FM Radio broadcasts, which offer specialized content. Hence, this matches IV - FM Radio.

Synchronous audience: This concept involves real-time interaction with an audience, typical in a Public speech, linking to I - Public speech.

Peculiar form of presentness: Often experienced with visual and immersive media like Television, which provide a unique temporal presence. Therefore, it corresponds to II - Television.

Based on these analyses, the correct answer is: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

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Q.28. The idea that mass media do not have much power to directly influence the audience led to the concept of.

1. Limited effects

2. Mass effects

3. Individual effects

4. Regulated effects

Explanation: (Limited effects)

The concept of "limited effects" in media studies arose as a challenge to earlier theories that posited powerful, direct effects of mass media on audiences.

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Q.29. Which of the following norms are prescribed for foreign universities to set up their campuses in India.

A. Foreign universities must invest in the Indian manufacturing industry.

B. They should have secured a position within the top 500 in global ranking.

C. They should have secured a position within the top 500 in global ranking in the subject-wise category.

D. They should employ only Indians for teaching and non-teaching.

E. They should possess outstanding expertise in a specific area.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B only

2. B, C, D only

3. C. D. E only

4. B. C. E only

Explanation:

The correct answer is B, C, E only. Let's analyze each option to understand why:

A. Foreign universities must invest in the Indian manufacturing industry. This is incorrect. There's no such mandatory requirement for foreign universities setting up campuses in India to invest in the Indian manufacturing industry.

B. They should have secured a position within the top 500 in global ranking. This is a correct criterion. Foreign universities often need to demonstrate a high level of global standing to be eligible.

C. They should have secured a position within the top 500 in global ranking in the subject-wise category. This is also correct. The ranking should ideally reflect their strength in the specific subject areas they intend to offer in India.

D. They should employ only Indians for teaching and non-teaching. This is incorrect. While Indian nationals are naturally preferred, there is no stipulation that a foreign university must employ only Indians. International expertise is often a key component of attracting students.

E. They should possess outstanding expertise in a specific area. This is correct. Foreign universities are expected to demonstrate a clear advantage or specialisation to justify their presence in the Indian educational landscape.

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Q.30. Which of the following electronic technologies is the key technology for making the third generation electronic computer?

1. Transistor based

2. Integrated Current (IC) based

3. Vacuum tube based

4. Macroprocessor based

Explanation:

The correct answer is Integrated Circuit (IC) based.

Third-generation computers (roughly 1964-1971) were characterized by a significant advancement in electronic technology: the integrated circuit (IC), also known as a microchip. This technology allowed for the miniaturization of electronic components, leading to smaller, faster, and more energy-efficient computers compared to their predecessors.

Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:

Transistor-based: Transistors were the key technology for second-generation computers. While ICs utilize transistors, the integration of numerous transistors onto a single chip was the defining feature of the third generation.

Vacuum tube-based: Vacuum tubes were the primary electronic components in first-generation computers, known for their large size, high power consumption, and heat generation.

Microprocessor-based: Microprocessors are the central processing units (CPUs) found in fourth-generation and later computers. While advancements towards microprocessors began during the third generation, the core technology defining this era was the integrated circuit itself.

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Q.31. Arrange the probabilities corresponding to the standard normal variate “z’ lying in the following intervals, in increasing order.

A. -∞ ≤ z ≤+1

B. 0 ≤ z ≤ +3

C. -1 ≤ z ≤ +1

D. Z ≥ +1



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, B, C, A

2. C. B. D. A

3. A. C. B. D

4. B, D, A, C

Explanation:

Interval A: -∞≤z≤+1The cumulative probability for this interval is the probability of 'z' being less than or equal to +1. From the standard normal distribution table, P(z≤+1) ≈ 0.8413.

Interval B: 0≤z≤+3For this interval, we need P(0≤z≤+3) = P(z≤+3) - P(z≤0). From the standard normal table: P(z≤+3) ≈ 0.9987 and P(z≤0) = 0.5. Thus, P(0≤z≤+3) ≈ 0.9987 - 0.5 = 0.4987.

Interval C: -1≤z≤+1This is calculated as P(-1≤z≤+1) = P(z≤+1) - P(z≤-1). From the table: P(z≤+1) ≈ 0.8413, P(z≤-1) ≈ 0.1587. So, P(-1≤z≤+1) ≈ 0.8413 - 0.1587 = 0.6826.

Interval D: z≥+1This is the probability of 'z' being greater than +1, which is 1 - P(z≤+1). So, P(z≥+1) = 1 - 0.8413 = 0.1587.

Now, ordering the probabilities in increasing order: P(D) = 0.1587, P(B) = 0.4987, P(C) = 0.6826, P(A) = 0.8413.Thus, the correct sequence is:

D, B, C, A

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Q.32. With reference to the open source software, which of the following statements are correct?

A. It is a software that is distributed with its source code.

B. It allows anyone to modify the software to best fit their needs.

C. It is a software that anyone can use on a trial basis before paying for it.

D. Linux is a example of open source software.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and D only

2. A, B, C and D only

3. A, C and D only

4. B and C only

Explanation:

The correct answer is A, B, and D only. Let's analyze each statement:

A. It is a software that is distributed with its source code. This is a defining characteristic of open-source software. The source code, the underlying instructions that make the software work, is freely available for anyone to examine, modify, and distribute.

B. It allows anyone to modify the software to best fit their needs. The availability of the source code allows for customization and adaptation. Users can tailor the software to their specific requirements, a key advantage of open-source software.

C. It is a software that anyone can use on a trial basis before paying for it. This describes trialware or shareware, not a defining feature of open-source software. Open-source software is typically free to use, distribute, and modify, although some commercial versions with added support may exist.

D. Linux is an example of open-source software. Linux is a widely known and used example of open-source software. Its kernel, the core of the operating system, is open source, and numerous distributions based on Linux are available.

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Q.33. Match the List-I with List-II

LIST I (Nature of substances)

A. Allergens

B. Carcinogens

C. Mutagens

D. Teratogens



LIST II (Effect)

I. Substances that cause cancer

II. Substances that can hamper embryonic growth

III. Substances that activate the immune system.

IV. Substances that can damage or alter genetic material



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

2. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

3. A-III, B-1, C-II. D-IV

4. A-III, B-1, C-IV, D-II

Explanation:

The correct matching is A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

Allergens are substances that activate the immune system, so A matches with III.

Carcinogens are substances that cause cancer, making B match with I.

Mutagens are defined as substances that can damage or alter genetic material, meaning C matches with IV.

Teratogens are substances that can hamper embryonic growth, thus D matches with II.

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Q.34. Identify the fallacy committed in the following statement: “Water is non-poisonous compound. Therefore, its components oxygen and hydrogen are non-poisonous”.

1. Fallacy of Division

2. Equivocation

3. Slippery Slope

4. Hasty Generalization

Explanation:

The correct option is Fallacy of Division.

The statement commits the fallacy of division because it assumes that the properties of a whole (water) are necessarily possessed by its constituent parts (oxygen and hydrogen). While water itself is non-poisonous, this doesn't automatically mean that each component, oxygen and hydrogen, is also non-poisonous in their pure forms. Hydrogen, for instance, is highly flammable and can be dangerous in certain circumstances. Oxygen, while necessary for life, can be toxic in high concentrations.

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Q.35. Find the next term in the number series 2A11, 4D13, 12G17, 48J23, ………………….

1. 245N32

2. 228L30

3. 240M31

4. 230M29

Explanation: (240M31)

We can break down each term into three components: a number, a letter, and another number.

Number Component: Observe the pattern in the numbers: 2, 4, 12, 48, ... Each number is multiplied by a progressively increasing integer. 2 x 2 = 4, 4 x 3 = 12, 12 x 4 = 48. Therefore, the next number would be 48 x 5 = 240.

Letter Component: The letters are A, D, G, J, ... These are letters separated by three positions in the alphabet (A + 3 = D, D + 3 = G, G + 3 = J). Following this pattern, the next letter would be J + 3 = M.

Second Number Component: The second number in each term increases by 2: 11, 13, 17, 23, ... This is an arithmetic sequence with a common difference of 2 and 4. The pattern is: 11 + 2 = 13; 13 + 4 = 17; 17 + 6 = 23; Following the pattern, the next number would be 23 + 8 = 31.

Combining these components, the next term in the series is 240M31.

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Q.36. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback in the context of climate change?

1. Oceans remove carbon dioxide from the air

2. Warming increases water vapour in air

3. Snow cover loss and iceshelf melt reduce sun’s reflection

4. Global temperature increases due to global warming

Explanation:

The correct answer is 1. Oceans remove carbon dioxide from the air.

Negative feedback in climate change refers to mechanisms that counteract the initial change, thus stabilizing the system. Let's analyze each option:

Oceans remove carbon dioxide from the air: This is a negative feedback loop. Increased atmospheric CO2CO2​ leads to increased absorption by the oceans, reducing the atmospheric CO2CO2​ concentration and thus mitigating further warming. This counteracts the initial increase in CO2CO2​.

Warming increases water vapor in the air: This is a positive feedback loop. Warming leads to increased evaporation, resulting in more water vapor in the atmosphere. Water vapor is a greenhouse gas, leading to further warming. This amplifies the initial warming.

Snow cover loss and ice shelf melt reduce sun's reflection (albedo effect): This is a positive feedback loop. Loss of reflective surfaces leads to increased absorption of solar radiation, causing further warming and more ice melt. This amplifies the initial warming.

Global temperature increases due to global warming: This is a statement of the problem, not a feedback mechanism.

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Q.37. Match the List-I with List-II

LIST I (Malware types)

A. Trapdoor

B. Time Bomb

C. Polymorphic Virus

D. Macro virus



LIST II (Characteristics)

I. Produces varying but operationally equivalent copies of itself

II. Code that allows unauthorized quick access at a later time

III. Instructions interpreted rather than executed

IV. Triggers action when specified time occurs



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation:

Trapdoor (A) refers to software that allows unauthorized access, matching characteristic II.

Time Bomb (B) activates on specific time conditions, matching characteristic IV.

Polymorphic Virus (C) can create variants of itself while maintaining functionality, matching characteristic I.

Macro Virus (D) runs instructions via an interpreter rather than execution, matching characteristic III.

The suitable match, therefore, is:

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.

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Q.38. Which of the following Green House Gases (GHGs) was considered during the second compliance period of Kyoto protocol at Doha?

1. Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6)

2. Hydrofluoro Carbons (HFCs)

3. Nitrogen Trifluoride (NF3)

4. Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)

Explanation:

The correct answer is Nitrogen Trifluoride (NF3).

The Kyoto Protocol's second commitment period (2013-2020), agreed upon in Doha, included several potent greenhouse gases under its emissions reduction targets. While the protocol initially focused on six greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, and sulfur hexafluoride), the inclusion of Nitrogen Trifluoride (NF3) as a controlled GHG was a significant development during the Doha amendment. NF3, despite its relatively low atmospheric concentration, possesses a very high global warming potential, making its inclusion crucial for comprehensive climate action.

Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4, while also potent greenhouse gases, were addressed in earlier phases or are not specifically highlighted within the context of the Doha amendment to the Kyoto Protocol's second compliance period.

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Q.39. Identify the sequence of words A-E that correctly fills the blanks in the following paragraph: In the context of human-computer interaction, a …………. is an interface built around visual things and Windows-11 is an example of an …………….. with these visual things. ……………… is region of the screen used to display information. ………………… is a small picture that is used to represent Folders, software etc., whereas …………. Is a list of options that the user can select from.

A. OS

B. Menu

C. Window

D. Icon

E. GUI



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. E, A, C, B. D

2. A, E, D, C, B

3. E.A.C. D. B

4. B, C, A, E, D

Explanation:

The correct answer is  E, A, C, D, B

The correct sequence of words to fill in the blanks is E, A, C, D, B. Let's break down why:

E. GUI (Graphical User Interface): A GUI is an interface that uses visual elements like windows, icons, and menus to interact with a computer. This directly fits the first blank, describing the type of interface being discussed.

A. OS (Operating System): Windows 11 is an example of an operating system (OS), which provides the underlying framework for the GUI. Thus, 'A' correctly fills the second blank.

C. Window: A window is a rectangular area on the screen used to display information, applications, or dialog boxes. This accurately describes the third blank.

D. Icon: An icon is a small picture representing a file, folder, program, or function. This definition precisely fits the fourth blank's description.

B. Menu: A menu is a list of options that a user can select from within an application or the OS itself. This completes the paragraph logically.

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Q.40. Match the List-I with List-II

LIST I Five year plans

A. First five year plan

B. Second five year plan

C. Third five year plan

D. Fifth five year plan



LIST II Agency set up

I. Autonomous colleges

II. University Grants Commission

III. Specialized departments of scientific study

IV. Two rural institutes in Wardha and Mysore



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II. В-III, C-IV, D-I

3. A-III. B-IV, C-I, D-II

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Explanation:

First Plan (1951–56): Two rural institutes (Wardha & Mysore) → IV

Second Plan (1956–61): Autonomous colleges → I

Third Plan (1961–66): UGC strengthened → II

Fifth Plan (1974–79): Specialized scientific departments → III

So, the right sequence is: A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III

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Q.41. The contents of Swayamprabha channel -4 with the theme of “Education and Home Science” are Provided by:

1. CEC, New Delhi

2. IIT. Madras

3. IGNOU, New Delhi

4. IIT Delhi

Explanation: Swayamprabha channels are a part of the SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) initiative, a government of India program. The content on these channels is provided by various educational institutions across the country. In this specific instance, the "Education and Home Science" themed content on Swayamprabha channel 4 is provided by the Central Institute of Education (CEC), located in New Delhi. 

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Q.42. Which of the following would create the most stable computer network with the fastest data transmission?

1. Use a wireless access point to connect devices

2. Connect devices wirelessly using mobile phone

3. Use coaxial cables to connect devices in sequence

4. Connect devices to a switch using optic fibre cables

Explanation:

The correct answer is  Connect devices to a switch using optic fibre cables

The most stable and fastest computer network is achieved by connecting devices to a switch using optic fibre cables. Here's why:

Option 1: Wireless Access Point: While convenient, wireless networks are susceptible to interference from other devices and environmental factors, leading to slower speeds and instability. Data transmission rates are generally lower than wired connections.

Option 2: Mobile Phone Hotspot: Using a mobile phone as a hotspot shares the same limitations as a wireless access point, with added concerns about the mobile phone's battery life and data limits impacting network performance. It is inherently less reliable and slower than a dedicated networking solution.

Option 3: Coaxial Cables: Coaxial cables offer a wired connection, but they are primarily designed for television signals and have limitations in data transmission rates and distances. They are significantly slower than optic fibre and more prone to signal degradation.

Option 4: Optic Fibre Switch: Optic fibre cables provide the highest bandwidth and fastest data transmission rates among the options. A switch allows multiple devices to connect simultaneously and efficiently share the network bandwidth, leading to a highly stable and fast network. The use of fiber optic cabling minimizes signal degradation and ensures a consistent connection even over longer distances.

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Q.43. Which of the following arguments is fallacious because the major term is all pervasive and the middle term is all-inclusive?

1. The sky-lotus is fragrant because it is a lotus.

2. Socrates is immortal because he died long ago.

3. Sound is eternal because it is audible.

4. Everything is nameable because it is knowable.

Explanation:

The correct answer is option 4: "Everything is nameable because it is knowable."

This argument commits the fallacy of the undistributed middle term. Let's break down why:

Major Term: "Nameable" (things that can be given a name)

Minor Term: "Everything"

Middle Term: "Knowable" (things that can be known or understood)

The problem lies in the all-encompassing nature of both the major and middle terms. The premise "Everything is knowable" attempts to encompass all things within the category of "knowable". Similarly, the conclusion "Everything is nameable" tries to encompass everything within the category of "nameable." The middle term, "knowable," doesn't successfully link the major and minor terms. It's too broad.

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Q.44. Reena wanted to eat an ice-cream. She took out a phone number online. She repeated the number over and over again while dialling. After order was delivered, she forgot the number. This is an example of the use of which memory process?

1. Short-term memory

2. Automatic Processing

3. Echoic Memory

4. Iconic Memory

Explanation: Short-term memory (STM) also known as working memory.

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Q.45. Match the List-I with List-II

LIST I (Particulate Matter Terms)

A. Aerosol

B. Nano Particles.

C. Smoke

D. Fine particles



LIST II (Explanation)

I. Particles formed by incomplete combination with mixture of carbon volatiles

II. Particles with size less than 2.5 micro meter

III. Particles with size less than 0.2 micro meter

IV. Any solid or liquid particle suspended in air



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II. D-I

2. A-IV, B-III, С-I, D-II

3. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

4. A-I, В-II, C-III, D-IV

Explanation: (A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II)

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Q.46. -50. Comprehension:

A careful study of the Rig-Veda shows that even in the early times, karma and jñāna were recognized as two separate factors in the spiritual progress of man. Karma is connected with the world immediately above the one in which we live; and jñāna is connected with the world further above that. Agni and Indra are connected with sacrifices, and the gods of the highest world are connected with prayer, and jñāna. Since the Vedic Samhitās are intimately connected with sacrifices, it is but natural that the gods connected with sacrifices, the gods of the two lower regions, should be more prominent in the Rig-Veda. It is only through jinäna that the soul can get into a state of everlasting bliss. This jñāna is esoteric knowledge. At the time of the Rig-Veda, the rsis had evolved a highly complicated system of philosophy and that the value of jñāna as a means to final release from the world of physical bondage had been well established. The Yajur- Veda and the Säma-Veda are of little importance to a student of ancient Indian culture. One notes the same optimistic tone in the Yajur-Veda, regarding man’s life in this world and his future in the other world. Material plenty is also quite noticeable. Gold and ornaments are spoken of freely as covetable objects. Cows are mentioned in thousands. So far as culture is concerned, so far as religion and philosophy go, there is no difference between the Rig-Veda and the other two Vedas



46- What is the original source of cultural life of the Hindus?

1. Itihasas

2. The Puranas

3. Manu

4. Sacred Vedas

Explanation: Sacred Vedas

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Q.47. The optimistic tone regarding man’s life in this world and his/her future in the other world exists in:

1. The Yajur-Veda

2. The Sama-Veda

3. The Atharva Veda

4. Rig-Veda

Explanation: The Yajur-Veda

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Q.48. In Rig-veda, Agni is connected with.

1. The world immediately above the one in which we live in

2. Sacrifices

3. Souls with everlasting bliss

4. The gods of Wisdom

Explanation: Sacrifices

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Q.49. According to Rig-Veda, Jñāna refers to.

1. Primitive culture

2. Predominance of sacrifice

3. Everlasting bliss

4. The gods of the highest world that are connected with sacrifices

Explanation: Everlasting bliss

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Q.50. At the time of Rig Veda, the rsis valued jñāna as means.

1. To find signs of a gloomier side in man’s life

2. To sacrifice and dissociate

3. To find release from the world of physical bondage

4. To rule and regulate

Explanation: To find release from the world of physical bondage

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