APPSC Degree Lecturer (DL) exam- English Paper-ii- July 2025
Q.1 Match the following characters with the
correct play.
A
i.The Tempest
ii.Othello
iii.Macbeth
iv.As You Like It
B
A.Iago
B.Macbeth
C.Prospero
D.Rosalind
1. 1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C
2. 1-C,2-A,3-B,4-D
3. 1-A,2-C,3-B,4-D
4. 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A
Answer: 2
Q.2 Who are the two main characters in
'Waiting for Godot' by Samuel Beckett?
1.
Pozzo and Lucky
2.
Vladimir and Estragon
3.
Estragon and the Boy
4.
Lucky and Vladimir
Answer: 3
Explanation: The main characters in Waiting
for Godot are Vladimir, Estragon, Pozzo, Lucky,
and the boy. Vladimir is an elderly tramp who
joins Estragon near a country road to wait for Godot. Estragon is
another tramp, who considers hanging himself with Vladimir if
Godot never arrives.
Q.3 How does Pozzo treat Lucky in Samuel
Beckett's play 'Waiting for Godot'?
1.
Kindly and generously
2.
Like an equal
3.
Cruelly and bossily
4.
Indifferently
Answer: 3
Q.4 What is Lucky’s role in Samuel Beckett'
play 'Waiting for Godot'?
1.
A messenger
2.
A master
3.
A servant/slave
4.
A traveler
Answer: 3
Q.5 In Absurdist theatre, characters often
struggle with communication. How is this shown in Waiting for Godot?
1.
Through fragmented, repetitive, and confusing conversations
2.
Through violent arguments
3.
Through long monologues by a narrator
4.
Through clear debates with logical conclusions
Answer: 1
Q.6 Shaw’s Saint Joan reflects his belief
in the ‘Life Force’. What does this concept suggest?
1.
That humanity evolves through individuals who challenge outdated systems
2.
That history repeats itself endlessly
3.
That divine intervention controls fate
4.
That obedience ensures survival
Answer: 1
Q.7 How does Shaw's depiction of Joan
challenge the medieval worldview supported by the Church and State?
1.
She asserts individual intuition over institutional dogma, reflecting
Shaw’s evolutionary idealism
2.
She embraces feudalism and divine right
3.
She proposes secularism in warfare
4.
She aligns fully with Church doctrine while questioning military
strategy
Answer: 1
Q.8 Read the following statements carefully
and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Joan is portrayed as a
passive victim of religious persecution.
Reason (R): Shaw intended to criticize
Joan's blind faith and superstition.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A and R are only partially correct, but
neither absolutely correct, nor totally false.
Answer: 3
Q.9 Shaw’s belief in 'Creative Evolution',
inspired partly by Henri Bergson, is most directly reflected in which of the
following dramatic themes?
1.
The randomness of human fate
2.
The rejection of all social order
3.
The cyclical nature of history
4.
The progressive role of exceptional individuals in shaping society
Answer: 4
Q.10 What is the central idea of
Structuralism in literary theory?
1. Meaning in literature comes from the
structure of language and underlying systems
2. Literature is a purely emotional
response of the reader
3. Literature is only defined by the
author's biography
4. Texts must be read only in historical
order
Answer: 1
Q.11 In Structuralist literary criticism,
what is a “myth” as understood by Claude Lévi-Strauss?
1.
A lie told in ancient stories
2.
A symbolic dream
3.
A cultural structure repeated across societies
4.
A fictional genre in modern literature
Answer: 3
Explanation: Lévi-Strauss viewed myths as recurring cultural structures that repeat
across societies, not just stories.
Q.12 According to Saussure, the
relationship between the signifier and the signified is:
1.
Arbitrary and culturally assigned
2.
Natural and unchanging
3.
Determined by history
4.
Always emotional
Answer: 1
Explanation: Saussure emphasized that the link between signifier (sound/image) and
signified (concept) is arbitrary and culturally agreed upon.
Q.13 In Saussurean theory, why is the
relationship between signifier and signified considered arbitrary?
1. Because signs evolve naturally over time
2. Because there is no inherent connection
between the sound/image and the concept it represents
3. Because all meanings are logical
4. Because signifiers are always visual
Answer: 2
Explanation: The signifier/signified connection is arbitrary because no natural bond
exists between word and concept.
Q.14 In Poetics, Aristotle defined tragedy
as:
1. The imitation of an action that is
serious and complete, evoking pity and fear
2. A narrative of heroism and divine
punishment
3. A form of poetry without catharsis
4. A comedic portrayal of life and manners
Answer: 1
Explanation: Aristotle defines tragedy as the imitation of a serious and complete
action that arouses pity and fear, leading to catharsis.
Q.15 Who wrote The Defence of Poesy, one of
the earliest works of English literary theory?
1.
Edmund Spenser
2.
Francis Bacon
3.
Ben Jonson
4.
Sir Philip Sidney
Answer: 4
Explanation: Sir Philip Sidney’s The Defence of Poesy (1595) is considered the
first major piece of English literary criticism.
Q.16 Virginia Woolf uses the metaphor of 'a
room of one’s own' to symbolize:
1.
The privacy and financial support necessary for creative freedom
2.
A physical location for writing groups
3.
Women’s desire for luxury
4.
A study in a large house
Answer: 1
Explanation: Woolf’s “room” is a metaphor for financial independence and private
space needed for women’s creativity.
Q.17 What does Woolf suggest through the
fictional character Judith Shakespeare in A Room of One’s Own?
1.
That female genius was historically suppressed by social conditions
2.
That Elizabethan women had freedom
3.
That Shakespeare’s sister also wrote plays
4.
That women in history had equal opportunities to write
Answer: 1
Explanation: Judith Shakespeare illustrates how female genius was historically
suppressed by patriarchy and lack of opportunity.
Q.18 Which novel by Salman Rushdie explores
the legacy of a famous Mughal ruler through a series of narratives and
historical events?
1.
The Ground Beneath Her Feet
2.
Midnight’s Children
3.
Shalimar the Clown
4.
The Enchantress of Florence
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Enchantress of Florence deals with Akbar’s Mughal court, blending
fantasy and history.
Q.19 Read the following question carefully.
It contains two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the
correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Toni Morrison’s novels
frequently incorporate elements of magical realism.
Reason (R): She uses supernatural elements
to explore collective memory and trauma.
1.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.
A is true, but R is false.
4.
A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 1
Explanation: Toni Morrison incorporates magical realism to deal with memory and
trauma; both statements are true and linked.
Q.20 In The Sword and the Sickle, Ramnath
is portrayed as:
1.
A tragic hero caught between traditions and change
2.
A wealthy landowner resisting political change
3.
A soldier in the British army
4.
A revolutionary leader
Answer: 1
Explanation: In
The Sword and the Sickle, Ramnath struggles between tradition and
political change, making him a tragic figure.
Q.21 In Untouchable, what is the symbolic
significance of Bakha’s fascination with the English Tommies?
1.
He wishes to escape caste by becoming a soldier
2.
He seeks validation of his own masculinity and identity
3.
He admires their hygiene and language
4.
He believes they are superior to all Indians
Answer: 2
Explanation: Bakha’s admiration for English Tommies reflects his longing for dignity,
masculinity, and identity beyond caste.
Q.22 Which of the following quotes from
Lord of the Flies speaks to the novel’s exploration of the inherent savagery in
humans?
1.
"Maybe there is a beast... maybe it's only us."
2.
"The only thing we have to fear is fear itself."
3.
"Hell is other people"
4.
"Man is the only creature who refuses to be what he is."
Answer: 1
Explanation: “Maybe there is a beast… maybe it’s only us” highlights Golding’s theme
of innate human savagery.
Q.23 Match the novel with the correct
uncommon quote of William Golding.
A. Lord of the Flies
B. The Inheritors
C. The Spire
D. Free Fall
i. "Maybe there is a beast… maybe it’s
only us."
ii. "He was a man and that was the end
of it."
iii. "What good is all this, if I
cannot believe in it?"
iv. "I have discovered that freedom is
not a thing but a choice."
1. A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
2. A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
3. A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
4. A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
Answer: 1
Explanation:
The quotes correctly match: Lord of the
Flies–1, The Inheritors–2, The Spire–3, Free Fall–4.
Q.24 What does 'control of gender roles'
refer to?
1.
Encouraging people to express all aspects of their identity
2.
Setting flexible expectations for behavior based on interest
3.
Enforcing specific behaviors and expectations based on gender
4.
Promoting equal rights through activism
Answer: 3
Explanation: “Control of gender roles” means enforcing fixed expectations based on
gender, not freedom of choice.
Q.25 Which of the following best defines
gender stereotyping?
1. The belief that all individuals have
equal capabilities regardless of gender
2. The assumption that certain roles or
behaviors are appropriate for individuals based on their gender
3. The practice of assigning roles based on
individual preferences
4. The legal enforcement of gender equality
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Q.26 Which of the following best reflects
the disciplinary nature of gender norms?
1.
Ignoring behavior that breaks gender expectations
2.
Encouraging everyone to invent personal identities
3.
Punishing nonconformity through social rejection
4.
Rewarding deviation from binary categories
Answer: 3
Explanation: Gender stereotyping assumes that certain behaviors/roles are suitable
only for one gender.
Q.27 Given below are two statements, one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the
context of the above two statements, select the correct option:
Assertion (A): Stereotypical gender
behavior is always imposed directly by institutions.
Reason (R): All institutions implement
explicit rules about how genders should behave.
1.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3.
A is true but R is false
4.
A is false but R is true
Answer: 4
Explanation: Gender norms are not always imposed directly by institutions; often they
are subtle and social.
Q.28 Which of the following is a subtle way
institutions control gender expression?
1.
Encouraging all students to question gender roles
2.
Enforcing appearance codes linked to sex categories
3.
Removing all rules related to gendered behavior
4.
Allowing unregulated identity expression
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Dress codes and
appearance rules linked to sex categories are subtle ways institutions control
gender expression.
Q.29 Who managed The Duke of York’s
Servants theatre company after 1660?
1.
Thomas Killigrew
2.
William Davenant
3.
Christopher Wren
4.
Aphra Behn
Answer: 2
Explanation: William Davenant managed the Duke of York’s company after the
Restoration.
Q.30 What was the significance of the
King's Company and the Duke's Company in the development of Restoration drama?
1. They were rival theatre companies that
promoted different styles of drama and who were known by the names of their
respective patrons.
2. They were theatre companies that only
performed Shakespeare's plays and had nothing to do with restoration drama.
3. They were companies that focused on
producing operas and musicals.
4. They were companies that only performed
for the working class.
Answer: 1
Explanation: King’s Company (Killigrew) and Duke’s Company (Davenant) were rivals,
shaping Restoration drama.
Q.31 Why is the Restoration period in
England often referred to as the Age of Reason?
1.
Due to the emphasis on emotional expression
2.
Because of the focus on rational thinking and intellectual inquiry
3.
As a result of the decline of scientific discoveries
4.
Because of the rise of romanticism
Answer: 2
Explanation: The period was called the “Age of Reason” because of its focus on
rationality and intellectual inquiry.
Q.32 Which of the following best reflects
Charles II’s attitude towards the theatre?
1.
Strict moral censorship of all scripts
2.
Preference for operas based on the Bible
3.
Encouragement of public performance
4.
Ban on foreign actors performing in English
Answer: 3
Explanation: Charles II actively encouraged theatre and public performances after the
Puritan ban.
Q.33 Who was the first woman to publish her
collected dramatic works in folio editions in the Restoration Age?
1.
Aphra Behn
2.
Susanna Centlivre
3.
Margaret Cavendish
4.
Delarivier Manley
Answer: 3
Explanation: Margaret Cavendish was the first woman to publish her collected plays in
folio.
Q.34 What was a notable feature of
Restoration drama during its early years?
1.
Its serious and moralistic tone
2.
Its satirical and licentious tone
3.
Its focus on historical themes
4.
Its emphasis on romantic love
Answer: 2
Explanation: Early Restoration drama was often satirical and licentious, reflecting
new freedoms after Puritan suppression.
Q.35 Which of the following best
characterises the staging techniques of Restoration theatre?
1.
Reliance on handheld props and banners
2.
Minimal scenery and acoustic chanting
3.
Elaborate scenery with moveable stage
4.
Total absence of visual and sound effects
Answer: 3
Explanation: Restoration theatre used elaborate scenery and movable stages, enhancing
spectacle.
Q.36 With reference to Andrew Marvell’s
poetry, consider the following statements
Statement A: His works reveal tension
between sensual pleasure and spiritual aspiration. Statement B: His language is
purely decorative without philosophical inquiry.
Statement C: His famous poem To His Coy
Mistress deals with themes of time and mortality.
Which of the statements given are correct?
1.
Statements B and C only
2.
Statements A and B only
3.
Statements A and C only
4.
Statements A, B and C
Answer: 3
Explanation: Marvell’s poetry often blends sensual and spiritual themes. To His
Coy Mistress deals with mortality and time.
Q.37 The metaphysical poets were known for
their use of personification and apostrophe. Which of the following lines is an
example of apostrophe?
1.
'That’s my last Duchess painted on the wall"
2.
"Busy old fool, unruly Sun"
3.
"Love is a growing, or full constant light"
4.
"The world is too much with"
Answer: 2
Explanation: “Busy old fool, unruly Sun” (John Donne) directly addresses the Sun, an
example of apostrophe.
Q.38 Which of the following pairs
represents a binary opposition commonly used as an example in deconstruction?
1.
Father and son
2.
Flesh and bone
3.
Speech and writing
4.
Salt and pepper
Answer: 3
Explanation: Deconstruction often analyzes binary oppositions, with “speech/writing”
being a central example in Derrida.
Q.39 What is absolute alterity? Do the
deconstructionists accept the idea of absolute alterity?
1. It refers to an irreconcilable gap, the
fundamental difference that exists between the self and the other and that
cannot be fully understood or assimilated by the self. No, the
deconstructionists reject the idea of absolute alterity.
2. It refers to the process of recognizing
the other as a singularity resisting categorisation. Yes, the
deconstructionists accept the idea of absolute alterity.
3. It refers to positing the other as a
fixed entity. No, the deconstructionists reject the idea of absolute alterity.
4. It refers to a reconcilable gap, the
fundamental difference that exists between the self and the other and that can
be understood by the self. Yes, the deconstructionists accept the idea of
absolute alterity
Answer: 1
Explanation: Absolute alterity refers to the unbridgeable gap between self and other.
Deconstructionists reject fixed notions of it.
Q.40 What is the significance of the
'pharmakon' in Derrida's philosophy?
1.
It is a remedy for the instability of language.
2.
It is a poison that undermines the stability of meaning.
3.
It represents the dynamic and unstable nature of language.
4.
It represents a fixed and essential meaning.
Answer: 3
Explanation: For Derrida, “pharmakon” means both remedy and poison, symbolizing
instability and fluidity of language.
Q.41 Match the literary elements with the
literary works in which they occur.
Element
i. Hybridity
ii. Exile
iii. Cultural memory
iv. Displacement
Work
a. Chinua Achebe's "Things Fall
Apart"
b. AD Hope's "Crossing the
Frontier"
c. Salman Rushdie's "Midnight's
Children"
d. Bessie Head's "A Question of
Power"
1. 1- d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
2. 1- c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
3. 1- b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
4. 1- c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
Answer: 2
Explanation: Hybridity–Rushdie, Exile–Bessie Head, Cultural memory–Achebe,
Displacement–AD Hope.
Q.42 Match the literary devices with the
works that feature them most prominently.
Literary Device
i. Metaphor- the protagonist's experiences
are likened to a "midnight's child".
ii. Imagery to evoke the sense of
displacement and isolation, where the protagonist's surroundings are
described in vivid and haunting detail.
iii. Symbolism- The kola nut is a symbol of
hospitality and community.
iv. To highlight the tensions between
cultural identity and geographical displacement, the speaker's journey is
marked by irony and contradiction
Work
a. Bessie Head's "A Question of
Power"
b. Chinua Achebe's "Things Fall
Apart"
c. Salman Rushdie's "Midnight's
Children"
d. A D Hope's "Crossing the
Frontier"
1. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b. 4-d
2. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b. 4-d
3. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a. 4-c
4. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b. 4-a
Answer: 1
Explanation: Metaphor (Midnight’s Children), Imagery (Bessie Head), Symbolism
(Achebe’s kola nut), Irony (AD Hope).
Q.43 Which of the following best defines
Freud’s unconscious?
1.
A repository of repressed desires and unresolved conflicts
2.
A rational system of clear conscious decisions and factual memories
3.
A purified state of moral instincts
4.
A surface level organization of reason
Answer: 1
Explanation: Freud saw the unconscious as a storehouse of repressed desires and
unresolved conflicts.
Q.44 What is the term Jung used to describe
the shared reservoir of archetypes common to all humans?
1.
Collective unconscious
2.
Personal unconscious
3.
Conscious mind
4.
Subconscious
Answer: 1
Explanation: Jung’s “collective unconscious” refers to shared human archetypes and
mythic patterns.
Q.45 Select the most appropriate
interpretation of Lacan's objet petit.
1.
The perfect cultural symbol mirrored in society
2.
The rational reconstruction of language
3.
The unattainable object of desire that drives the subject
4.
The ideal representation of a perfect cultural symbol
Answer: 3
Explanation: Lacan’s objet petit a is the unattainable object of desire that
structures human longing.
Q.46 According to psychoanalytic criticism
the role of the unconscious mind and developmental fixations in shaping
literary characters' behaviors, motivations and desires is monumental.
With regard to same, where would the
fixations of a literary character would lie if they are overindulgent in food
like Sir Robert de Baudricourt in Saint Joan.
Choose the most appropriate option from the
following.
1.
Oral Incorporative
2.
Oral Aggressive
3.
Anal aggressive
4.
Phallic
Answer: 1
Explanation: Overindulgence in food is linked to oral incorporative fixation in
psychoanalysis.
Q.47 Who authored the book Out of My
System: Psychoanalysis, Ideology, and Critical Method?
1.
Léon Edel
2.
Frederick Crews
3.
Jacques Lacan
4.
Slavoj Žižek
Answer: 2
Explanation: Frederick Crews wrote Out of My System: Psychoanalysis, Ideology, and
Critical Method.
Q.48 Given below are two statements, one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the
context of the two statements, select the correct option:
Assertion (A): Colonial literature
uniformly opposed imperial policies.
Reason (R): Most colonial authors were
natives who resisted colonization through writing.
1.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.
(A) is true, but (R) is false
4.
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: 4
Explanation: Colonial literature was not uniformly anti-imperial; many authors
collaborated with empire. Thus A false, R true.
Q.49 "What is the difference between a
politician who says Africa cannot do without imperialism and the writer who
says Africa cannot do without European languages?"
Who posed this question?
1.
Ngũgĩ wa Thiong'o
2.
Obi Wali
3.
Chinua Achebe
4.
Wole Soyinka
Answer: 1
Explanation: NgÅ©gÄ© wa Thiong’o asked this provocative question about language and
colonialism.
Q.50 Who was the first to use the wave
metaphor for the movements of feminism?
1.
Rebecca Walker
2.
Martha Weinman Lear
3.
Gloria Steinem
4.
Betty Friedan
Answer: 2
Explanation: Martha Weinman Lear first used the “wave” metaphor for feminism in a
1968 article.
Q.51 In mythology, what does the 'Hero'
archetype typically represent?
1.
Wisdom and knowledge
2.
Rebellion and chaos
3.
Courage and transformation
4.
Mystery and secrecy
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Hero archetype represents
courage, perseverance, and transformation as they undergo trials to achieve
growth.
Q.52 Which of the following best explains
the function of myth according to Northrop Frye’s theory of archetypes?
1.
To document historical facts through narrative
2.
To provide a religious framework for society
3.
To reflect recurring patterns that shape literary structure and meaning
4.
To define political ideologies in literature
Answer: 3
Explanation: Frye explains myths/archetypes
as recurring narrative patterns shaping literary structure, not just historical
or religious facts.
Q.53 According to Northrop Frye, archetypal
criticism focuses on the shared symbolic patterns across literature. Which of
the following is NOT part of Frye’s analysis of archetypes?
1.
Analyzing the historical and cultural origins of literary forms
2.
Identifying the reappearance of certain symbols, motifs, and characters
in different works
3.
Connecting literary works to universal myths and structures
4.
Investigating the emotional impact of symbols on readers’ subconscious
minds
Answer: 4
Explanation: Archetypal criticism focuses
on universal symbols and myths. Emotional impact on the subconscious is
Jungian, not Frye’s concern.
Q.54 Frye’s “tragic” mythos aligns with
which season in his cyclical framework of myth and literature?
1.
Autumn
2.
Winter
3.
Spring
4.
Summer
Answer: 1
Explanation: In Frye’s seasonal mythos:
tragedy = autumn (decline/decay), comedy = spring (rebirth), romance = summer
(triumph), satire/irony = winter.
Q.55 According to Pope, critics should be
guided by:
1.
Their own instincts only
2.
The rules of Aristotle and Horace
3.
The will of the public
4.
Random inspiration
Answer: 2
Explanation: Pope believed critics should
be guided by classical rules of Aristotle and Horace, not by personal whims.
Q.56 In ‘An Essay on Criticism’, Pope warns
against “Nature meant but fools; in search of wit these lose their common
sense". Which of the following best explains the kind of critics Pope
criticizes in this context?
1.
Critics who strictly follow classical rules without understanding their
spirit.
2.
Critics who focus excessively on the moral message of a work rather than
its form.
3.
Critics who only praise popular authors to gain favor.
4.
Critics who harshly judge without sufficient knowledge or humility.
Answer: 4
Explanation: Pope criticizes arrogant
critics who harshly judge without real understanding or humility.
Q.57 In the question given below, two
statements are provided — an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The Bluest Eye shows how
systemic racism negatively impacts the psychology of young African-American
girls.
Reason (R): Pecola's fixation on attaining
blue eyes signifies her internalization of racial inferiority taught by a
racially stratified society.
1.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.
A is true, but R is false.
4.
A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Bluest Eye shows
how racism distorts Black girls’ self-image. Pecola’s desire for blue eyes
reflects internalized racism, explaining A.
Q.58 In the question given below, two
statements are provided — an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The Bluest Eye portrays
internalized racism as a psychological consequence of systemic oppression.
Reason (R): Each character's suffering
stems primarily from personal moral failure, rather than social and racial
structures.
1.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.
A is true, but R is false.
4.
A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 3
Explanation: Internalized racism stems from
oppression, not personal moral failure. Hence A is true, R is false.
Q.59 Read the following question carefully.
It contains two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the
correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Morrison uses non-linear
narratives in her fiction.
Reason (R): She aimed to mirror the
fragmented histories and suppressed voices of African Americans.
1.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.
A is true, but R is false.
4.
A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 1
Explanation: Morrison’s non-linear
narratives reflect fragmented African American histories and silenced voices.
Q.60 In the question given below, two
statements are provided — an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R).
Read both statements carefully and choose
the correct option from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The theme of racial identity
is central to Toni Morrison’s works.
Reason (R): Morrison’s characters often
grapple with the challenges of defining their identities in a society that
barely marginalizes them.
1.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.
A is true, but R is false.
4.
A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Racial identity is central in Morrison’s works, but the explanation has a
wording flaw (“barely marginalizes”); thus A true, R true but not correct
explanation.
Q.61 In Margaret Atwood’s works, what role
does storytelling often play for her female protagonists?
1.
A means to escape from reality and live in fantasy
2.
A tool of domination used by patriarchal institutions
3.
A method of silencing others and asserting superiority
4.
A form of resistance and reclaiming of agency
Answer: 4
Explanation: In Atwood’s works,
storytelling gives women resistance and agency, allowing them to reclaim their
narratives.
Q.62 In the question given below, two
statements are provided — an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Toni Morrison often
incorporates elements of African American folklore and oral traditions into her
novels.
Reason (R): These elements serve as a means
of preserving cultural memory and resisting the erasure of African American
history.
1.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.
A is true, but R is false.
4.
A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 1
Explanation: Morrison uses folklore/oral
traditions to preserve cultural memory and resist erasure.
Q.63 Read the following question carefully.
It contains two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the
correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Cholly Breedlove’s character
symbolizes the oppressive impact of systemic racism. Reason (R): His violence
and alienation are shaped by internalized racial trauma and generational pain.
1.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.
A is true, but R is false.
4.
A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 1
Explanation: Cholly Breedlove embodies
systemic racism’s trauma. His violence reflects internalized pain and
generational suffering.
Q.64 How does Elizabeth's character evolve
throughout Bessie Head's novel 'A Question of Power'?
1. She undergoes a spiritual
transformation, grappling with the complexities of power and identity as she
moves from a state of oppression and madness to one of healing and
self-discovery, demonstrating the power of community and the importance of
finding one's own voice and purpose.
2. She struggles to reconcile her cultural
identity with her personal experiences and when she was unable to do so she
descended into madness and never recovered, highlighting the negative impact of
alienation.
3. She becomes increasingly disillusioned
with her life in Botswana and sailed off on a voyage to find her path in the
world that looked promising and full of adventures.
4. She remains static, unchanged by her
experiences, highlighting the futility of life and existence
Answer: 1
Explanation: Elizabeth undergoes a
spiritual journey from madness to healing, learning identity and voice through
community.
Q.65 How is Medusa characterised in the
novel 'A Question of Power'?
1. As a character who appears in
Elizabeth's hallucinations and acts as a figure of power and sensuality
2. As a mythological character who appears
in Elizabeth's dream and becomes her spiritual guide
3. As the mistress of her husband who was
smitten by her sensuality leaving Elizabeth alienated
4. As a manifestation of Elizabeth's
perception of other women as gorgon monsters
Answer: 1
Explanation: Medusa appears in Elizabeth’s
hallucinations as a figure symbolizing power and sensuality.
Q.66 Which of the following novels by
Bessie Head features the character Margaret Cadmore?
1.
A Question of Power
2.
The Cardinals
3.
Maru
4.
When Rain Clouds Gather
Answer: 3
Explanation: Margaret Cadmore appears in Maru,
exploring race, identity, and belonging in Botswana.
Q.67 In A Question of Power, the
protagonist, Elizabeth, struggles with which aspect of her identity throughout
the novel?
1.
Her relationship with nature
2.
Her sexual identity
3.
Her racial and cultural identity
4.
Her role in a patriarchal society
Answer: 3
Explanation: Elizabeth struggles with
racial and cultural identity, central to her psychological conflict.
Q.68 In When Rain Clouds Gather, which
character provides a contrast to Makhaya’s personal journey, symbolizing
traditional African community values?
1.
The Chief
2.
Makhaya’s father
3.
Paulina
4.
The District Commissioner
Answer: 1
Explanation: In When Rain Clouds Gather,
the Chief represents traditional African values, contrasting with Makhaya’s
personal journey.
Q.69 Chinua Achebe’s A Man of the People
critiques which aspect of post-colonial Nigerian society?
1.
The oppression of women
2.
The political corruption and betrayal of ideals
3.
The role of oral traditions
4.
The legacy of African communalism
Answer: 2
Explanation: A Man of the People
critiques corruption in postcolonial Nigerian politics.
Q.70 Which of the following plays by Girish
Karnad explores the fusion of myth and contemporary issues?
1.
Tughlaq
2.
Nagamandala
3.
Hayavadana
4.
Taledanda
Answer: 3
Explanation: Hayavadana blends myth
(head-body transposition) with modern identity concerns.
Q.71 The character of Hayavadana in
Hayavadana is a representation of which of the following mythological themes?
1.
The conflict between the mind and the body
2.
The search for immortality
3.
The pursuit of knowledge
4.
The cyclical nature of time
Answer: 1
Explanation: Hayavadana symbolizes the
conflict between mind and body.
Q.72 In his poetry, A.K. Ramanujan often
merges which two literary traditions?
1.
The Western Romantic and Victorian traditions
2.
The Anglo-Saxon and Modernist traditions
3.
The Native American and African oral traditions
4.
The Classical Sanskrit and Modern English traditions
Answer: 4
Explanation: Ramanujan merges Classical
Sanskrit traditions with modern English poetry.
Q.73 Which of the following poems by A.D.
Hope highlights the impact of colonialism, describing the "five
cities" as "sores" that drain the land?
1.
"Australia"
2.
"The Return"
3.
"The Death of the Bird"
4.
"Moschus Moschiferus"
Answer: 1
Explanation: Australia describes
“five cities” as sores draining the land, critiquing colonial legacy.
Q.74 A. D. Hope’s poem “The Death of the
Hired Man” explores the theme of:
1.
Alienation and loneliness
2.
Social class and labor
3.
The cyclical nature of life
4.
The search for self-identity
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Ambiguity in question.
The Death of the Hired Man is by Robert Frost, not A.D. Hope. Answer given in the key is 1,
but 3 is right.
“The Death of the
Bird” by A.D. Hope first appeared in 1948 in his debut poetry collection The
Wandering Islands.
The poem uses the
metaphor of a migrating bird’s final journey to meditate on
the inevitability of death, the pull of instinct, and the cyclical nature
of life.
Q.75 In A.D. Hope’s “The New World”, the
poet contrasts:
1.
Love and despair
2.
Modernity and tradition
3.
The old world of Europe and the new world of Australia
4.
Natural beauty with industrial growth
Answer: 3
Explanation: The New World contrasts
the old Europe with the new Australia, highlighting cultural dislocation.
Q.76 Which of the following best captures
A. D. Hope’s approach to the Fall in Imperial Adam?
1.
Affirmation of man’s spiritual rise
2.
Exploration of man’s fall and moral consequence
3.
Rejection of mythological symbolism and superstitions
4.
Celebration of Biblical heroes
Answer: 2
Explanation: Imperial Adam explores
man’s fall and its moral consequences, not triumph.
Q.77 Which of the following themes is
emphasized in A. D. Hope’s The Return of Persephone?
1.
The permanence of grief
2.
The cycle of death and rebirth
3.
Escape from myth
4.
Political liberation
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Return of Persephone
emphasizes cycles of death and rebirth from myth.
Q.78 In “The Flying Fox,” A. D. Hope
contrasts human civilization with the theme of:
1.
The spiritual journey
2.
The untamed natural world
3.
The pursuit of knowledge
4.
The passage of time
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Flying Fox
contrasts human civilization with the untamed natural world.
Q.79 In A. D. Hope’s poetry, the recurring
motif of “classical allusions” primarily serves to:
1.
Emphasize the poet’s rejection of contemporary society.
2.
Draw parallels between ancient myths and modern human experience.
3.
Advocate for a return to traditional religious values.
4.
Highlight technological progress through historical contrast.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Ambiguity in answer.
Hope’s classical allusions link ancient
myths with modern human experiences, not technology. (Correction: given answer
in the key is 4, but 2 is right).
Q.80 A.D. Hope’s use of “Australia” to
critique colonialism can be seen in his:
1. Portrayal of Australia as a utopian land
free from historical baggage
2. Denunciation of European settlers’
influence on the indigenous culture and landscape
3. Exploration of the tensions between
British imperialism and the new
4. Australian identity Embrace of
Australia’s colonial legacy as a source of national pride
Answer: 3
Explanation: In Australia, Hope
critiques colonialism by exposing tensions between British imperialism and
emerging national identity.
Q.81 The image of the "slow time"
in the final stanza of "Ode on a Grecian Urn" suggests that Keats is
contemplating:
1.
The endless nature of time in art
2.
The destructive passage of time
3.
The inevitability of death
4.
The beauty of aging
Answer: 1
Explanation: “Slow time” in Keats’ ode
suggests art’s timelessness in contrast to fleeting human life.
Q.82 In the question given below, two
statements are provided — an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): In Eugene O’Neill’s The
Hairy Ape, Mildred Douglas acts as a psychological trigger for Yank’s internal
crisis.
Reason (R): Her disgust toward Yank
reinforces his alienation from the upper class and himself.
1.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3.
A is true, but R is false.
4.
A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 1
Explanation: Mildred’s disgust acts as the
trigger for Yank’s alienation in The Hairy Ape.
Q.83 In the question given below, two
statements are provided — an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): In Eugene O’Neill’s The
Hairy Ape, the character Long symbolizes passive resignation to capitalism.
Reason (R): Long encourages Yank to rise up
politically and rebel against the capitalist system.
1.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.
A is true, but R is false.
4.
A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 3
Explanation: Long actually urges rebellion,
not passive resignation. Hence A false, R true.
Q.84 Which model best explains the way
English has evolved into a global language with diverse forms and variations?
1.
The Immersion Model
2.
The Kachruvian Three-Circle Model
3.
The Critical Period Model
4.
The Code-Switching Model
Answer: 2
Explanation: Kachru’s three-circle model
(Inner, Outer, Expanding) explains English’s global spread.
Q.85 Which of the following factors mostly
contributed to the growth of English as a lingua franca in post- independence
India?
1.
The dominance of British cultural influence through media.
2.
The lack of a single common Indian language and linguistic diversity.
3.
The absence of regional languages in education.
4.
English being the only official language of India since independence.
Answer: 2
Explanation: In India, English grew due to
linguistic diversity and lack of a single common tongue.
Q.86 Which of the following best describes
the 'acquisition-learning hypothesis' in the context of English as a Second
Language (ESL)?
1.
Language acquisition occurs only in formal classroom settings.
2.
Language learning is more effective than language acquisition for
adults.
3.
Acquisition is a subconscious process, while learning is a conscious
process.
4.
Learning and acquisition are identical processes in second language
development.
Answer: 3
Explanation: Krashen: acquisition =
subconscious; learning = conscious.
Q.87 In the process of learning a foreign
language, which of the following skills typically comes first?
1.
Reading and writing
2.
Listening and speaking
3.
Writing and reading
4.
Speaking and writing
Answer: 2
Explanation: Listening and speaking
naturally come before reading and writing in language learning.
Q.88 Which of the following is a key
challenge for learners studying English as a Foreign Language (EFL) compared to
learners studying English as a Second Language (ESL)?
1.
Lack of native English-speaking instructors
2.
Limited exposure to English outside the classroom
3.
Difficulty in learning English grammar rules
4.
Reduced motivation to learn English
Answer: 2
Explanation: EFL learners face limited
exposure outside classrooms, unlike ESL learners.
Q.89 Which theory emphasises that EFL
learners acquire language more effectively when they are exposed to
comprehensible input that is slightly above their current proficiency level?
1.
Critical Period Hypothesis
2.
Output Hypothesis
3.
Comprehensible Input Hypothesis
4.
Sociocultural Theory
Answer: 3
Explanation: Krashen’s Comprehensible Input
Hypothesis: learners progress when input is slightly above current level (i+1).
Q.90 What is the primary reason English is
often referred to as a 'global language'?
1.
It is the easiest language to learn.
2.
It has the largest number of native speakers.
3.
It is widely used in international business, science, and media.
4.
It is the oldest language in the world.
Answer: 3
Explanation: English is global mainly
because of its dominance in science, business, and media.
Q.91 Which of the following is a major
factor contributing to the spread of English as a global language in the 20th
century?
1.
The popularity of Latin American culture
2.
The decline of French as a lingua franca
3.
British Empire's large extent and rise of U.S. globally
4.
The growth of international trade routes in ancient times
Answer: 3
Explanation: English spread due to British
Empire’s vast reach and U.S. global dominance.
Q.92 Read the given statement carefully and
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusion(s) supported by
the statement.
Statement: Grammar Translation Method (GMT)
uses vocabulary from the texts that teachers teach through translation,
memorisation and dictionary study.
Conclusion 1: Translation helps students
accurately understand the syntactic structures of the target language.
Conclusion 2: In this method, students
think in the target language and also speak or transmit knowledge to the
teacher in their native language.
Conclusion 3: The primary goal of GMT is to
develop communicative competence in a target language.
Conclusion 4: Translation of target
literature is used to develop reading, comprehension and writing proficiency in
the new foreign language.
1.
Only 1
2.
Only 1 and 4
3.
Only 3
4.
Only 2 and 3
Answer: 2
Explanation: GMT uses translation and
memorization, supporting conclusions 1 and 4.
Q.93 What is the primary focus of the
Grammar Translation Method in language teaching?
1.
Emphasising speaking and listening skills
2.
Learning grammar rules and translating sentences between languages
3.
Learning through immersion in the target language
4.
Focusing on pronunciation and conversation
Answer: 2
Explanation: GMT emphasizes grammar rules
and translation, not communication.
Q.94 What is a defining characteristic of
the Direct Method in language teaching?
1.
Emphasis on translation of texts
2.
Exclusive use of the target language in the classroom
3.
Focus on teaching grammar rules explicitly
4.
Heavy reliance on written exercises
Answer: 2
Explanation: Direct Method stresses
exclusive target language use, not translation.
Q.95 According to Dr. Bretton, Direct
Method in language learning can be challenging because
1.
It relies heavily on written drills and grammar translation.
2.
It is effective only for students who are quick to grasp concepts.
3.
It prioritizes memorization rather than comprehension.
4.
It limits instruction to vocabulary building activities.
Answer: 2
Explanation: DM is difficult as it requires
quick grasping without reliance on native language.
Q.96 Which of the following is a typical
feature of the Direct Method in language teaching?
1.
Grammar is taught explicitly and deductively.
2.
Vocabulary is introduced through translation from the native language.
3.
Classroom instruction occurs entirely in the target language.
4.
Language learning is supported by frequent use of the native language.
Answer: 3
Explanation: Feature of DM: classes are
conducted entirely in target language.
Q.97 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: Many educators admit that the
Grammar Translation Method (GTM) remains relevant in many countries due to its
structured approach to learning a new language.
Conclusion 1: The grammar translation
method focuses on grammar and literary analysis, making it easier for higher
learning students to read difficult texts in the target language
Conclusion 2: This method does not provide
any opportunity at all to practice listening or speaking skills Conclusion 3:
Students gain structure of language and comprehend language input primarily
through support of native language.
Conclusion 4: Modern adaptations of the
method integrate technology into learning to make vocabulary and grammar
interactive
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
1 and 4
2.
2, 3 and 1
3.
3 and 4
4.
1. 3 & 4
Answer: 4
Explanation: GTM is relevant because it
teaches grammar, structure, and modern tech can adapt it. Conclusions 1, 3, and
4 are valid.
Q.98 Read the given statement carefully and
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: Grammar Translation Method (GTM)
has significant pedagogical value for teachers and learners employing the
technique of understanding cognates.
Conclusion 1: This method uses cognates to
clarify the singular linguistic derivations of different languages that are
taught in classrooms.
Conclusion 2: Teachers in this method
usually have a high level of proficiency in both, the native and the target
language.
Conclusion 3: Students are asked to deduce
the pronunciation of different words in native and target language and apply
them in reading.
Conclusion 4: Learning about cognates has
value only in the classroom.
1.
Only 1 and 2
2.
Only 2 and 3
3.
Only 1 and 4
4.
Only 2 and 4
Answer: 1
Explanation: GTM uses cognates; teachers
must know both native and target language well.
Q.99 What was the primary aim of Direct
Method in language learning?
1.
To expand the learner's vocabulary
2.
To teach grammar rules explicitly
3.
To get the learner to think in the target language
4.
To improve the learner’s translation skills
Answer: 3
Explanation: Direct Method aims to make
learners think in the target language
Q.100 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: The primary objectives of the
Direct Method for adults include promoting fluency, enhancing conversational
skills, and fostering a natural acquisition of language through immersion.
Conclusion 1: Adults need to address the
necessity of practical communication skills in real-life contexts, as they come
from diverse backgrounds, and variable learning levels.
Conclusion 2: This method does not
encourage learners to think in the target language, thus hindering an intuitive
grasp of grammar and vocabulary.
Conclusion 3: Experts believe that the
Direct Method approach is particularly effective for professionals and adults
in new social setting.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
Only 1
2.
Only 2
3.
Only 3
4.
1 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation: For adults, DM stresses
fluency and real-life communication. Conclusions 1 and 3 apply.
Q.101 What is the primary objective of the
Direct Method in language teaching?
1.
Focusing on translation to learn meanings
2.
Encouraging the use of the target language for everyday communication
3.
Memorising grammatical rules
4.
Writing long essays in the target language
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Direct Method emphasizes speaking and listening in the target
language. Translation is avoided, and learners practice real-life communication
in the target language.
Q.102 Which of the following is an
important principle of Communicative Language Teaching?
1.
Using only textbook-based materials
2.
Emphasizing grammar drills over communication
3.
Using authentic materials in language instruction
4.
Focusing solely on written language skills
Answer: 3
Explanation: CLT promotes communication by using authentic, real-world materials
(newspapers, conversations, etc.), not just textbook drills.
Q.103 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: Communicative Language Teaching
(CLT) methods stress the importance of fluency over accuracy in language
teaching.
Conclusion 1: Interactive activities are
designed by teachers and trainers to promotote spontaneous and natural language
use
Conclusion 2: In a CLT classroom, the
teacher is a facilitator and advisor since they plan communicative tasks and
offer advice and co-communication as support.
Conclusion 3: Errors made in interactions
are corrected by teachers and peers immediately, as accuracy is imperative
Conclusion 4: The target language used by
learners is generally less predictable.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
1, 2 and 3
2.
1, 2 and 4
3.
1, 3 and 4
4.
2, 3 and 4
Answer: 2
Explanation: CLT values fluency over accuracy. Teachers act as facilitators,
encourage interactive tasks, and communication is less predictable. Immediate
correction (conclusion 3) contradicts CLT principles, so 1, 2, and 4 are
correct.
Q.104 What is the primary goal of
Communicative Language Teaching (CLT)?
1. Memorising grammar rules
2. Developing learners' ability to
communicate effectively in real-life situations
3. Focusing on translation exercises
4. Teaching language patterns through
repetitive drills and practice
Answer: 2
Explanation: The main goal of CLT is enabling learners to communicate effectively in
real-life situations, not rote grammar memorization.
Q.105 According to Nelson Brooks of Yale
University, the term "audio-lingual" refers to a method of teaching
that aims to develop which abilities in learners?
1.
Reading and writing skills
2.
Translation and grammar skills
3.
Vocabulary memorization and repetition
4.
Aural-oral abilities to communicate
Answer: 4
Explanation: According to Nelson Brooks, the Audio-Lingual Method (ALM) develops aural-oral
skills through drills and patterns.
Q.106 Which of the following learning
theories is most closely associated with the Audio-Lingual Method?
1.
Cognitive Theory
2.
Behaviorist Theory
3.
Sociocultural Theory
4.
Constructivist Theory
Answer: 2
Explanation: ALM is rooted in Behaviorist theory, focusing on habit-formation through
stimulus–response–reinforcement.
Q.107 Which of the following principles is
central to the Communicative Language Teaching (CLT) approach?
1.
Language learning is most effective when learners memorise vocabulary
lists.
2.
Fluency is more important than accuracy in the early stages of language
learning.
3.
Grammar should be explicitly taught before any communicative activities
are introduced.
4.
Reading and writing skills should be prioritised over speaking and
listening.
Answer: 2
Explanation: CLT prioritizes fluency over accuracy in early learning stages,
encouraging free communication without over-correcting.
Q.108 According to Littlewood, what is one
of the most characteristic features of Communicative Language Teaching?
1.
It focuses exclusively on the structural aspects of language.
2.
It prioritises grammar over language function.
3.
It systematically addresses both functional and structural aspects of
language.
4.
It encourages memorisation rather than communication.
Answer: 3
Explanation: Littlewood emphasized that CLT systematically addresses both functional
(use) and structural (form) aspects of language.
Q.109 Which of the following statements
accurately reflects the weak version of Communicative Language Teaching (CLT)
as opposed to the strong version?
1.
The weak version of CLT emphasises the explicit teaching of grammatical
forms alongside communicative activities.
2.
The weak version of CLT completely disregards any form of grammatical
instruction.
3.
The strong version of CLT integrates translation-based exercises into
communicative practice.
4.
The weak version of CLT requires language learners to produce the target
language through
spontaneous conversation without any formal
teaching.
Answer: 1
Explanation: The weak version of CLT mixes explicit grammar instruction with
communicative practice, unlike the strong version, which is purely
communicative.
Q.110 What is the primary technique used in
the Audio-Lingual Method for teaching language?
1.
Role-playing real-life situations
2.
Drills and repetition of sentence patterns
3.
Reading comprehension exercises
4.
Learning through translation
Answer: 2
Explanation: ALM relies heavily on drills and repetition to form language
habits, not translation or comprehension exercises.
Q.111 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: In Audio-Lingual Method (ALM),
there is clear evidence of the key role of behaviourism as an underpinning
philosophy for the approach.
Conclusion 1: Behaviorism in ALM reinforces
the philosophy that all behaviours are acquired through conditioning processes
Conclusion 2: ALM uses reinforcement and
drilling of learners who are praised when speaking correctly while they have to
memorise and correct a mistake after repeated trials.
Conclusion 3: Many claim that this approach
hinders students to focus on building correct pronunciation habits as they
cannot practice writing the target language.
Conclusion 4: Brooks said that 'language
learning is that it concerns, not problem solving, but the formation and
performance of habits.'
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
1 and 2
2.
2, 3 and 4
3.
1, 2 and 4
4.
1 and 3
Answer: 3
Explanation: Behaviorism underpins ALM. Brooks emphasized habit-formation, with
reinforcement and drilling. Conclusions 1, 2, and 4 align with the statement.
Q.112 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement : In the Grammar Translation
Method (GTM), vocabulary is taught through direct translation from the native
language to the target language, often accompanied by grammar drills
Conclusion 1: GTM promotes a deep
understanding of vocabulary through contextual learning and usage. Conclusion
2: GTM up-ends the natural order of learning a foreign language of listening,
speaking, reading, and writing and thus restricts students.
Conclusion 3: Students learn to monotously
memorize vocabulary lists and grammatical rules without much emphasis on
practical application.
Conclusion 4: The method is often
criticized for its lack of focus on spoken language skills.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
1, 2 and 3
2.
Only 2
3.
2, 3 and 4
4.
only 3
Answer: 3
Explanation: GTM stresses translation and memorization of rules, with little focus on
communication. Thus, 2, 3, and 4 are valid criticisms.
Q.113 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: Despite the prevalence of
high-tech tools and methodologies today, many language instructors are still
trained primarily in the Grammar Translation Method, learning traditional
grammar rules and memorising by rote, over communicative competence and
interactive learning.
Conclusion 1: The Grammar Translation
Method remains useful or relevant in modern language education
because it provides a strong foundation in
grammatical structures, which supports further language learning or higher
learning
Conclusion 2: Training instructors
exclusively in the Grammar Translation Method can hinder their ability to
effectively teach languages in a way that prepares students for real-world
communication.
Conclusion 3: The widespread use of
high-tech tools in education makes the Grammar Translation Method obsolete and
irrelevant for contemporary language instruction.
Conclusion 4: The method is one of the ways
where vocabulary acquisition is enhanced, especially with direct translation
and copious reading
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
1, 2 and 3
2.
1, 2 and 4
3.
1 and 4
4.
2, 3 and 4
Answer: 2
Explanation: While GTM gives strong grammar foundations (1, 4), training only in GTM
hinders communicative teaching (2). Conclusion 3 is extreme and not fully
supported.
Q.114 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: Developing listening
comprehension skill helps learners to succeed in language learning to enhance
comprehensible input.
Conclusion 1: Teachers can intuitively
notice which students are picking up the process of listening and comprehending
target material
Conclusion 2: Listening and reading are
'receptive' skills that have no impact on writing proficiency Conclusion 3: The
aural route is the way imagination and context is boosted in students of all
ages. Conclusion 4: Exposure to native speakers through listening improves
pronunciation and intonation
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
Only 1
2.
1, 3 and 4
3.
2 and 3
4.
Only 2
Answer: 2
Explanation: Listening builds imagination, context, and pronunciation skills (1, 3,
4). Claiming receptive skills have no impact (2) is false.
Q.115 Read the given statement carefully
and then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusion(s)
supported by the statement.
Statement: Comprehension, especially
reading comprehension, serves as the foundation for academic success across all
subject areas.
Conclusion 1: Critical analysis and
thinking, problem solving and synthesis of information are key to
comprehension.
Conclusion 2: Students of reading
comprehension only need a vast knowledge of scientific vocabulary. Conclusion
3: Context variables such as reading purpose or topic familiarity or awareness
do not affect comprehension.
Conclusion 4: Comprehension exercises our
cognitive skills such as attention, memory and inference making ability.
1.
Only 1
2.
Only 1 and 4
3.
Only 2 and 3
4.
Only 3 and 4
Answer: 2
Explanation: Reading comprehension involves higher-order skills like analysis and
memory (1, 4). Vocabulary alone (2) or ignoring context (3) is insufficient.
Q.116 Read the given statement carefully
and then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusion(s)
supported by the statement.
Statement: Research indicates that
effective listening enhances cognitive processing, enabling learners to
replicate native pronunciation and intonation.
Conclusion 1: Listening is fundamental to
language acquisition and learners absorb and familiarise with linguistic input
via sounds, rhythms and structures of a target language.
Conclusion 2: New research indicates that
communication, i.e., speaking in any form, is superior to effective listening
of a new language being learnt.
Conclusion 3: Active listening and critical
thinking enable cognitive engagement to contextualise language, its grammar and
vocabulary.
Conclusion 4: The listening talent is not
crucial in fast-paced communication scenarios, as quick comprehension happens
only through cultural cues.
1.
Only 1 and 3
2.
Only 3
3.
Only 2 and 3
4.
Only 2 and 4
Answer: 1
Explanation: Effective listening aids pronunciation, grammar, and vocabulary. Thus, 1
and 3 are correct; 2 and 4 contradict research.
Q.117 What is the difference between
teaching grammar and functional English in a communicative classroom?
1. Teaching grammar emphasises
communicative competence, while functional English focuses on grammatical
accuracy.
2. Teaching grammar involves isolated rules
and structure, whereas functional English focuses on using language for
specific, real-world purposes.
3. Teaching functional English prioritises
translation from the first language, while teaching grammar emphasises direct
language use.
4. Teaching grammar deals only with writing
skills, while functional English focuses on speaking skills
Answer: 2
Explanation: Grammar teaching emphasizes rules/structures, while functional English
applies language in real-world contexts.
Q.118 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: Teachers frequently use
problem-based learning (PBL) techniques, which require students to work in
groups to solve real-world problems, fostering collaboration and critical
thinking. Balancing participation creates inclusion and dynamism in students.
Conclusion 1: Problem-based learning
encourages students to develop practical skills that are directly applicable to
their future careers, allowing learning to become more profound and durable.
Conclusion 2: PBL can lead to unequal
participation among group members, where some students may actively participate
in discussions while others remain uninterested or disengaged.
Conclusion 3: The effectiveness of
problem-based learning is diminished if professors do not provide structured
guidance throughout the process, which keeps students focused and helps them
overcome knowledge gaps.
Conclusion 4: Problem-based learning is
primarily focused on discussing theoretical concepts rather than applying them
in practical scenarios.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
1, 2 and 3
2.
1, 3 and 4
3.
1 and 3
4.
2, 3 and 4
Answer: 1
Explanation: Problem-based learning fosters skills (1), may create unequal
participation (2), and needs structured teacher guidance (3). Option 4
contradicts the PBL approach.
Q.119 Read the statements given below
carefully. The first statement is an Assertion (A) and the second one is Reason
(R). Determine their status and select the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): In undergraduate or graduate
class, incorporating peer to peer learning through teaching is essential.
Reason (R): Peer teaching enhances and
reinforces absorption and comprehension of material taught by professors.
Which option would you accept as the
correct one?
1.
Both A and R are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for
the assertion.
2.
Both A and R are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation
for the assertion.
3.
A is correct, but R is incorrect.
4.
Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer: 1
Explanation: Peer teaching deepens comprehension and reinforces learning. Both A and
R are true, and R explains A correctly.
Q.120 Read the given statement carefully
and then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusion(s)
supported by the statement.
Statement: The Direct Method employed by
teachers encourages learning through conversation and interactive dialogue
rather than translation.
Conclusion 1: This approach always hampers
students’ ability to understand written texts down the line. Conclusion 2: By
focusing on conversation, new learners usually swiftly develop their speaking
and listening skills, and recognition of written text more effectively.
Conclusion 3: The method ensures that
grammar is ignored during the learning process, leading to scrambled
understanding of the dynamics of a new language.
Conclusion 4: Direct Method instructors
need skill and fluency in several languages so they can toggle between a
variety of learner's L1 and L2, while maintaining engaging conversations and
teaching proper usage for difficult real-life dialogue.
1.
Only 1 and 3
2.
Only 2
3.
Only 3 and 4
4.
Only 3
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Direct Method strengthens speaking/listening and recognition of
written text (2). It doesn’t ignore grammar or require translation.
Q.121 Read the statements given below
carefully. The first statement is an Assertion (A) and the second one is Reason
(R). Determine their status and select the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Evaluating student
performance in a diverse learning environment can be complex. Traditional
teaching or assessment methods may not adequately capture individual
contributions or learning outcomes, necessitating the development of new evaluation
strategies that align with active learning goals
Reason (R): Universal design for learning
(UDL) is an effective theoretical framework to improve differentiated
instruction (DI). It is useful in restructuring teaching and assessment in
multi-ability and diverse classrooms. While UDL focusses on representation,
expression and engagement, DI adapts curriculum, instruction and assessment to
ensure the individual needs of every student.
Which option would you accept as the
correct statement?
1.
(A) is true but (R) is false
2.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) correctly
3.
(A) is false and (R ) is true
4.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: 2
Explanation: Both A and R are true, and UDL (representation, expression, engagement)
explains the need for new strategies in diverse classrooms.
Q.122 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: The use of experiential learning
techniques, which involve hands-on experiences such as
internships or fieldwork, not only presents
challenges for graduate school professors but aligns academic objectives with
practical applications.
Conclusion 1: Professors must often
negotiate with external organizations to secure meaningful experiential
opportunities for students, which can be time-consuming.
Conclusion 2: The primary focus of
experiential learning is on theoretical understanding rather than the
development of practical skills relevant to the field.
Conclusion 3: Reflection is a critical
component of experiential learning, as it helps students integrate their
experiences with academic concepts.
Conclusion 4: Experiential learning allows
students to apply theoretical knowledge in real-world contexts, enhancing their
overall understanding of the subject matter.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
Only 1
2.
1, 3 and 4
3.
2 and 3
4.
Only 2
Answer: 2
Explanation: Experiential learning requires negotiation with organizations (1),
reflection (3), and applying knowledge in real-world contexts (4).
Q.123 Select the option that is true
regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): One very good reason for teachers to consider using authentic
texts is its accessibility.
Reason (R): The biggest disadvantage of
using authentic materials is that they contain more unfamiliar language than
learners can possibly cope with.
1.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
2.
(A) is true but (R) is false.
3.
(A) is false and (R) is true.
4.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: 3
Explanation: Assertion is false (authentic texts can be difficult, not necessarily
accessible), but Reason is true—they often contain unfamiliar language.
Q.124 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: The situational and
context-bound approach of authentic learning necessitates tasks and
methodologies that are genuine and
open-ended, allowing students to formulate strategies collaboratively,
including access to teachers and experts for guidance and discussion.
Conclusion 1: When students handle complex
tasks, they collaborate with external stakeholders from across disciplines as
exposure to diverse perspectives on complex issues is crucial.
Conclusion 2: Guidance from teachers and
trainers and the additional peer collaboration fosters a sense of ownership and
contribution to students' learning.
Conclusion 3: Authentic learning contexts
should mirror real-world scenarios, requiring students to apply their joint
knowledge and tackle difficult scenarios
Conclusion 4: The learning environment is
not characterized by cooperation or rich language interactions as students can
be secretive about their knowledge -base
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1.
1, 2 and 3
2.
1, 3 and 4
3.
2 and 3
4.
Only 2
Answer: 3
Explanation: Authentic learning fosters teacher/peer collaboration (2) and mirrors
real-world scenarios (3). Other conclusions exaggerate.
Q.125 Incidental vocabulary learning is
most effective when it occurs through which of the following activities?
1.
Memorizing word lists
2.
Engaging with authentic materials
3.
Taking vocabulary quizzes
4.
Attending grammar lectures
Answer: 2
Explanation: Incidental vocabulary learning happens naturally through authentic
exposure (reading, listening, conversations), not memorization.
Q.126 Read the statements given below
carefully. The first statement is an Assertion (A) and the second one is Reason
(R). Determine their status and select the most appropriate option.
(A) Assertion: Diverse approaches to
teaching vocabulary in secondary school can significantly enhance language
proficiency.
(R) Reason: Using authentic contexts,
visuals or interactive activities such as multimedia sources, games or debates/
discussions help students understand and retain new vocabulary, while reading
and writing improve broader and deeper language capabilities.
Which option would you accept as the
correct statement?
1.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
2.
(A) is true but (R) is false
3.
(A) is false and (R) is true
4.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) correctly
Answer: 4
Explanation: Both A and R are true, and R explains A: varied methods (multimedia,
debates, etc.) help vocabulary learning.
Q.127 Read the statements given below
carefully. The first statement is an Assertion (A) and the second one is Reason
(R). Determine their status and select the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Teaching vocabulary using
multimedia resources , such as videos and audio clips, significantly improves
learners' retention.
Reason (R): Multimedia resources engage
multiple senses, making the learning process more interactive and memorable.
Which option would you accept as the
correct statement?
1.
Both (A) and (R) are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation
for the assertion.
2.
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but the reason is not the correct
explanation for the assertion.
3.
The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
4.
Both the assertion and reason are incorrect.
Answer: 1
Explanation: Both A and R are true, and multimedia engages multiple senses,
supporting vocabulary retention.
Q.128 Read the given statement carefully,
then select the option that correctly identifies the conclusions supported by
the statement.
Statement: Using semantic mapping, where
students visually organize words and their relationships, can enhance
vocabulary retention.
Conclusion 1: Syntactic charting technique
is not useful for advanced learners of a new language, as they comfortably use
word relationships in graduate course.
Conclusion 2: Linguistic mapping makes it
easier for students to see connections between words, which aids in deeper
understanding and recall.
Conclusion 3: Managing the digital world
online is the only reason why learning about semantic relationships is
necessary, as it aids in your contents' discoverability.
Conclusion 4: Connotation and denotation
are the most important concepts of semantics.
Choose an option that points to the right
answer:
1.
1 and 2
2.
2 and 4
3.
2 and 3
4.
1 and 4
Answer: 2
Explanation: Semantic mapping shows connections (2) and deals with
denotation/connotation (4). Other conclusions are irrelevant.
Q.129 Which of the following best describes
the primary goal of evaluation?
1.
To assess student learning only at the end of a course
2.
To measure learning outcomes and improve instructional strategies
3.
To judge the effectiveness of individual teachers
4.
To develop new teaching materials
Answer: 1
Explanation: Evaluation measures outcomes and improves teaching strategies,
not just end-term grading.
Q.130 Which of the following is a key
characteristic of formative assessment in the context of learning?
1.
It is used to determine final grades and rankings.
2.
It provides ongoing feedback to improve student performance.
3.
It occurs only at the end of a course or unit.
4.
It assesses students solely through standardised tests.
Answer: 2
Explanation: Formative assessment provides ongoing feedback during learning,
unlike summative tests.
Q.131 Which principle of evaluation focuses
on the importance of objectivity and impartiality?
1.
Relevance
2.
Utility
3.
Fairness
4.
Accuracy
Answer: 3
Explanation: Fairness ensures objectivity and impartiality in evaluation, free from
bias.
Q.132 Which of the following best describes
construct validity in language testing?
1. The test content directly aligns with
the instructional material covered during the course.
2. The test adequately measures the
specific linguistic skills it is intended to measure, such as reading, writing
or speaking.
3. The test results are consistent across
multiple test administrations.
4. The test measures language ability as
well as non-linguistic factors, such as motivation and cultural knowledge.
Answer: 2
Explanation: Construct validity means the test measures the specific skills it is
intended to measure (e.g., speaking ability in a speaking test).
Q.133 Which type of evaluation is conducted
before the instruction begins to assess learners' prior knowledge and
readiness?
1.
Formative Evaluation
2.
Summative Evaluation
3.
Diagnostic Evaluation
4.
Process Evaluation
Answer: 3
Explanation: Diagnostic evaluation is done before instruction to check prior
knowledge and readiness.
Q.134 What is the purpose of a diagnostic
test in education?
1.
To evaluate what students have learned at the end of a term
2.
To identify students’ strengths and weaknesses before starting
instruction
3.
To measure students' ongoing progress during instruction
4.
To rank students based on their final performance
Answer: 2
Explanation: A diagnostic test identifies learners’ strengths and weaknesses
before starting instruction.
Q.135 Which type of assessment focuses on
providing ongoing feedback to improve teaching and learning during the course?
1.
Summative assessment
2.
Formative assessment
3.
Diagnostic assessment
4.
Placement assessment
Answer: 2
Explanation: Formative assessment provides ongoing feedback to improve
learning during the course.
Q.136 Which type of evaluation provides
feedback during the making of instructional materials?
1.
Summative Evaluation
2.
Diagnostic Evaluation
3.
Developmental Evaluation
4.
Formative Evaluation
Answer: 4
Explanation: Formative evaluation also applies to instructional material design,
offering feedback for improvement.
Q.137 Which type of assessment is primarily
used to place students in appropriate instructional levels or courses?
1.
Formative assessment
2.
Diagnostic assessment
3.
Placement assessment
4.
Summative assessment
Answer: 3
Explanation: Placement assessment ensures learners are placed at the correct
level/course.
Q.138 Testing and evaluation help teachers
to
1.
control student behavior
2.
guide instructional planning
3.
reduce the need for teaching aids
4.
ignore student feedback
Answer: 2
Explanation: Testing and evaluation guide teachers in planning instruction,
not controlling behavior.
Q.139 Which of the following is a primary
objective of testing and evaluation?
1.
To increase student anxiety
2.
To assess student understanding and knowledge
3.
To discourage students from making mistakes
4.
To rank students by popularity
Answer: 2
Explanation: The primary objective is to assess students’ knowledge/understanding,
not to increase anxiety.
Q.140 Which of the following best describes
the objective of diagnostic testing?
1.
To measure students' cumulative knowledge over a semester
2.
To identify specific areas where students need improvement
3.
To prepare students for final exams
4.
To rank students based on performance
Answer: 2
Explanation: Diagnostic testing pinpoints areas needing improvement, not
ranking or cumulative assessment.
Q.141 Which of the following is an
important objective of performance-based assessment in language learning?
1.
To measure how well students can apply their knowledge and skills in
real-world tasks
2.
To test students' memorisation of grammar rules
3.
To rank students based on standardised test scores
4.
To evaluate students' ability to answer multiple-choice questions
accurately
Answer: 1
Explanation: Performance-based assessment checks real-world application of
skills, not rote grammar memorization.
Q.142 Which of the following is a key
objective of norm-referenced testing?
1. To evaluate a student's performance
based on their mastery of specific content
2. To compare a student's performance to
that of their peers
3. To diagnose a student's individual
strengths and weaknesses
4. To provide personalised feedback for
improving performance
Answer: 2
Explanation: Norm-referenced testing compares a learner’s performance with peers, not
mastery of specific skills.
Q.143 Which of the following best
represents the components of communicative competence?
1. Knowledge of the grammar and vocabulary
of the language only
2. Knowledge of grammar, rules of speaking,
use of speech acts, and appropriate language use
3. Knowing how to translate the language
effectively
4. Knowledge of rules of writing and
reading only
Answer: 2
Explanation: Communicative competence includes grammar, vocabulary, discourse, and
sociolinguistic appropriateness.
Q.144 In articulatory phonetics, which part
of the vocal apparatus is responsible for producing bilabial sounds?
1.
The tongue and the teeth
2.
The back of the tongue and the velum
3.
Both lips coming together
4.
The tip of the tongue and the alveolar ridge
Answer: 3
Explanation: Bilabial sounds (/p/, /b/, /m/) are made by both lips coming together.
Q.145 What is the purpose of phonemic
transcription in linguistics?
1. To represent all phonetic details of
speech sounds
2. To capture the spelling variations of
words
3. To represent only the distinct sounds
(phonemes) that can change the meaning of a word
4. To show how words are written in
different languages
Answer: 3
Explanation: Phonemic transcription represents distinct phonemes that change
meaning, not every phonetic detail.
Q.146 The IPA symbol /Ê’/ corresponds to
which sound in English?
1.
The sound in "treasure"
2.
The sound in "major"
3.
The sound in "jet"
4.
The sound in "shy"
Answer: 1
Explanation: The symbol /Ê’/ corresponds to the sound in “treasure” (voiced
postalveolar fricative).
Q.147 What is the term for the smallest
unit of sound that can change the meaning of a word in a particular language?
1.
Morpheme
2.
Phoneme
3.
Grapheme
4.
Syllable
Answer: 2
Explanation: A phoneme is the smallest sound unit that changes meaning (e.g.,
/p/ vs /b/).
Q.148 Which of the following sets correctly
identifies voiceless fricative sounds in the International Phonetic Alphabet
(IPA)?
1.
/v/, /z/, /ð/, /ʒ/
2.
/f/, /θ/, /s/, /ʃ/
3.
/h/, /v/, /s/, /Ê’/
4.
/f/, /z/, /ð/, /ʃ/
Answer: 2
Explanation: Voiceless fricatives: /f/, /θ/, /s/, /ʃ/. Others like /v/ and /z/ are
voiced.
Q.149 Which of the following pairs of
sounds are classified as affricates in English language?
1.
/tʃ/ and /dʒ/
2.
/p/ and /b/
3.
/f/ and /v/
4.
/s/ and /z/
Answer: 1
Explanation: Affricates in English: /tʃ/ (“ch” in church) and /dÊ’/ (“j” in judge).
Q.150 In English, which of the following
consonant clusters is NOT allowed at the beginning of a word?
1.
/pl/
2.
/st/
3.
/tr/
4.
/tl/
Answer: 4
Explanation: The cluster /tl/ does not occur word-initially in English, unlike /pl/,
/st/, /tr/.
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