UGC NET Sep 2026 Re-Exam — Paper-I

 

UGC NET JUNE 2026 ( Sep 2026 Re-Exam) - Paper-I — Final Answer Key & Explanations

Paper 1 (General Paper) + Paper 2 (English) — 150 Questions

NTA UGC NET Sep 2026 Re-Exam – Paper 1 (General Paper)

Comprehension (1 to 5)

The following table shows the total number of Runs scored by five leading batters (A–E) in 20 Twenty20 (T20) cricket matches of the Women's Premier League (WPL)–2026, along with the highest number of Runs scored in any of these 20 matches and the number of matches in which each Batter has scored 100 or more runs, scored from 50 to 99 Runs and scored zero (0) Runs.

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow:

 

Batter-wise Performance Details in 20 T20 Cricket Matches:

Batter	Total Number of Runs in 20 matches	Highest Number of Runs in any one of 20 matches	Number of Matches with
			100 or more Runs	50–99 Runs	Zero (0) Runs
A	988	141	5	3	1
B	752	130	1	8	2
C	409	52	–	1	2
D	653	94	–	4	1
E	780	85	–	7	–

Note: The symbol '–' is assumed to mean zero occurrences.

 

Q.1

Excluding the one match with the highest number of Runs in any one of the 20 matches and the number of matches with 50–99 Runs, what will be the average of the total number of Runs scored by Batter B in various matches, assuming that she scored a total of 402 Runs in 8 matches in the range from 50 to 99 Runs?

1.  20   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  18

3.  22

4.  16

Answer: 1

Explanation: Batter B’s total runs = 752. Highest score = 130. Runs in 50–99 range = 402. Remaining runs = 752 – 130 – 402 = 220. Remaining matches = 20 – 1 – 8 = 11. Average = 220 ÷ 11 = 20.

 

Q.2

What will be the average of the total number of Runs scored by Batter C, excluding the number of matches where she scored zero Runs and the one where she scored highest number of Runs?

1.  21   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  22

3.  19

4.  17

Answer: 1

Explanation: Batter C’s total runs = 409. Highest score = 52. Zero-run matches contribute 0. Remaining runs = 409 – 52 = 357. Remaining matches = 20 – 2 – 1 = 17. Average = 357 ÷ 17 = 21.

 

Q.3

The difference between the two highest total number of Runs scored by batters is ________ less than the difference between the two lowest total number of Runs scored by batters (in all the 20 matches taken together).

1.  24

2.  36   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  28

4.  32

Answer: 2

Explanation: Highest totals: A (988) and E (780); difference = 208. Lowest totals: C (409) and D (653); difference = 244. 244 – 208 = 36.

 

Q.4

If M and N, respectively, represent the average number of Runs scored by the top two batters in terms of total number of Runs, excluding the number of matches where they scored zero (0) Runs, then M – N = ________.

1.  11

2.  7

3.  5

4.  13   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: Top two batters: A (988 runs, 1 zero → 19 matches → average 988/19 = 52) and E (780 runs, 0 zeros → 20 matches → average 39). Difference = 52 – 39 = 13.

 

Q.5

If P, Q, R, S and T, respectively, represent the number of matches where each of the five Batters (A–E) scored from 1 to 49 Runs, then which of the following order is correct?

1.  P < Q < S < T < R

2.  T < Q < P < R < S

3.  S < Q < P < T < R

4.  Q < P < T < S < R   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: Matches with 1–49 runs = 20 – (100+) – (50–99) – (0). A: 11 (P), B: 9 (Q), C: 17 (R), D: 15 (S), E: 13 (T). Order: Q (9) < P (11) < T (13) < S (15) < R (17).

 

Q.6

In pre-colonial India, Higher Education was taught in these languages:

A. Arabic

B. Punjabi

C. Persian

D. Hindi

E. Sanskrit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A, B and C Only

2.  B, C and D Only

3.  A, C and E Only   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  B, D and E Only

Answer: 3

Explanation: In pre-colonial India, higher education (madrasas, pathshalas, etc.) was primarily conducted in Arabic, Persian and Sanskrit. Hindi and Punjabi were not the main languages of higher learning at that time.

 

Q.7

Which of the following is/are correct?

A. The average of the squares of first seven natural numbers = 20

B. The average of the cubes of first 5 natural numbers = 42

C. Average of first n multiples of any number = number × (n + 1)

D. Average of 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23 and 25 = 13

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A, B and C Only

2.  B, C and D Only

3.  A, C and D Only

4.  A and D Only   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: A is correct (sum of squares 1² to 7² = 140; average = 20).

B is incorrect (sum of cubes 1³–5³ = 225; average = 45).

C is incorrect (correct formula is number × (n+1)/2).

D is correct (arithmetic mean of first 13 odd numbers = 13).

 

Q.8

In which of the following types of fallacies, the premises of the argument are simply not relevant to the conclusion?

A. Ad Hominem

B. False Cause

C. Hasty Generalization

D. The Red Herring

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A and D Only   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  B and C Only

3.  A and C Only

4.  B and D Only

Answer: 1

Explanation: Ad Hominem and Red Herring are relevance fallacies where the premises are irrelevant to the conclusion. False Cause and Hasty Generalization are inductive fallacies.

 

Q.9

An institute which “serves as a pivotal player in developing highly skilled personnel within the specified region” is called:

1.  Public University

2.  Private Aided Institution

3.  Deemed University

4.  Institute of National Importance   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: Institutes of National Importance (e.g., IITs, NITs, AIIMS) are established by Acts of Parliament and are specifically mandated to develop highly skilled personnel in specialised fields of national importance.

 

Q.10

As per NEP 2020, an Autonomous Degree-granting College is an institution that:

A. grants undergraduate degrees

B. is a co-educational one

C. has a good canteen

D. is mainly focused on undergraduate teaching

E. is smaller than a typical university

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  B, C and D Only

2.  A, B and E Only

3.  A, D and E Only   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  C, D and E Only

Answer: 3

Explanation: NEP 2020 defines Autonomous Degree-granting Colleges as institutions that primarily focus on undergraduate teaching, grant undergraduate degrees, and are generally smaller than universities.

 

Q.11

Which of the following pairs of ICT acronyms and their expansions are correctly matched?

A. OCR – Optical Character Recognition

B. GPS – Global Positioning Sensor

C. GUI – Graphical User Interface

D. RAM – Rapid Access Memory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A, B and C Only

2.  B, C and D Only

3.  B and D Only

4.  A and C Only   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: OCR = Optical Character Recognition and GUI = Graphical User Interface are correct. GPS is Global Positioning System (not Sensor) and RAM is Random Access Memory (not Rapid).

 

Q.12

“Communication does not consist of the transmission of meaning. Meanings are not transmitted or transferable. Only messages are transmitted and meanings are not in the message, they are in the message users.” Who has made the above statement?

1.  Denis McQuail

2.  Raymond Williams

3.  Berlo   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  Harold D. Lasswell

Answer: 3

Explanation: This statement is attributed to David K. Berlo in his SMCR model of communication, emphasising that meaning resides in the receiver, not in the message itself.

 

Q.13

According to Bloom’s Taxonomy, what are the three domains of Learning?

1.  Translation, Interpretation, Extrapolation

2.  Interpretation, Communication, Evaluation

3.  Affective, Psychomotor, Cognitive   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  Learners, Content, Teaching Methods

Answer: 3

Explanation: Benjamin Bloom’s Taxonomy classifies educational objectives into three domains: Cognitive (knowledge), Affective (attitude/emotion) and Psychomotor (skills).

 

Q.14

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Learning Structures)       LIST-II (Teaching Tactics)

A. Signal Learning         I. Provide opportunity for practice

B. Chain Learning         II. Make students to see similarities and dissimilarities among stimuli

C. Multiple discrimination Learning         III. Ignore incorrect response and reinforce correct one

D. Concept Learning      IV. Asking students to give examples

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

2.  A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

4.  A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Answer: 2

Explanation: As per Gagné’s hierarchy: Signal Learning → ignore incorrect & reinforce correct; Chain Learning → provide practice; Multiple Discrimination → highlight similarities/differences; Concept Learning → ask for examples.

 

Q.15

Arrange the following Green House Gases according to their relative contributions to atmospheric temperature rise (total global warming) in ascending order:

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Chlorofluorocarbons

C. Methane

D. Nitrous Oxide

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  B, D, C, A

2.  D, B, C, A   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  D, C, B, A

4.  C, D, B, A

Answer: 2   

Explanation: As per the NTA official answer key, the correct ascending order of relative contribution to atmospheric warming is Nitrous Oxide < Chlorofluorocarbons < Methane < Carbon dioxide, i.e. D, B, C, A (Option 2). CO2 remains the single largest contributor to anthropogenic global warming due to its sheer volume, even though CFCs and CH4 have a higher per-molecule (global-warming-potential) effect.

 

Q.16

A pictorial presentation to show the structure of communication process in which various elements are linked; is known as ______.

1.  Theory

2.  Press Conference

3.  Model   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  Propaganda

Answer: 3

Explanation: Communication models (e.g., Shannon-Weaver, Berlo’s SMCR) are pictorial/schematic representations that show the linked elements of the communication process.

 

Q.17

Arrange the areas of following shapes in descending order of their values:

A. A sphere of diameter 0.35 m

B. Curved surface of a cylinder of length 1.0 m and radius 0.2 m

C. A square of side 2.4 m

D. A circular strip of inner radius 2.5 m and outer radius 3.5 m

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A, B, C, D

2.  C, D, B, A

3.  D, C, B, A   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  B, A, D, C

Answer: 3

Explanation: Approximate areas: Sphere surface ≈ 0.385 m²; Cylinder curved ≈ 1.257 m²; Square = 5.76 m²; Annular strip = π(3.5² – 2.5²) ≈ 18.85 m². Descending order: D > C > B > A.

 

Q.18

Prior to NEP (2020), which act laid down legal underpinnings for achieving universal elementary education?

1.  Right to Education Act (2003)

2.  Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (2009)   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  Right of Children to Compulsory Education Act (2000)

4.  Right of all Indians to Free and Compulsory Education Act (2010)

Answer: 2

Explanation: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 made elementary education a fundamental right for children aged 6–14 years.

 

Q.19

Which of the following statements are true?

A. Aristotelian syllogism is deductive and formal.

B. Nyāya syllogism is deductive–inductive.

C. Nyāya philosophy regards deduction and induction as separate processes.

D. Aristotelian logic has five propositions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A and B Only   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  B and C Only

3.  A and C Only

4.  B and D Only

Answer: 1

Explanation: Aristotelian syllogism is purely deductive and formal. Nyāya syllogism combines deduction and induction. Statement C is false (Nyāya treats them as continuous); D is false (Aristotelian syllogism has three propositions).

 

Q.20

Which fallacy is involved in the following argument?

“All household pets are animals. No unicorns are animals. Therefore, some unicorns are not household pets”

1.  Illicit minor

2.  Existential Fallacy   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  Exclusive premises

4.  Four terms

Answer: 2  

Explanation: The argument has the form: 'All household pets are animals' (a universal affirmative, A-type premise) and 'No unicorns are animals' (a universal negative, E-type premise), yet the conclusion 'some unicorns are not household pets' is a particular (O-type) statement. Drawing a particular conclusion from two universal premises illegitimately presupposes that the subject class (unicorns) actually exists — this is precisely the Existential Fallacy, not the fallacy of exclusive premises (which requires *two* negative premises; here only one premise is negative).

 

Q.21

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Hardware / Software)     LIST-II (Description)

A. CPU I. System Software

B. Windows-11 II. Brain of the Computer

C. Safari           III. Network Traffic Device

D. Router          IV. Web Browser

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

2.  A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

4.  A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Answer: 2

Explanation: CPU is the brain of the computer; Windows-11 is system software; Safari is a web browser; Router is a network traffic device.

 

Q.22

Standard deviation (S) and Mean of Squares (MS) of positive numerical values for four different populations P, Q, R, and S are given in A–D below. Compute the coefficient of variation (expressed as a percentage) of these four populations and arrange them in ascending order:

A. Population P : S=12 ; MS=1044

B. Population Q : S=9 ; MS=981

C. Population R : S=20 ; MS=2000

D. Population S : S=10 ; MS=2600

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  B, D, C, A

2.  D, B, A, C   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  C, A, B, D

4.  D, C, A, B

Answer: 2   

Explanation: Mean² = MS – S², so Mean = √(MS – S²), and CV (%) = (S / Mean) × 100.

P: Mean = √(1044–144) = √900 = 30 → CV = 12/30 × 100 = 40%

Q: Mean = √(981–81) = √900 = 30 → CV = 9/30 × 100 = 30%

R: Mean = √(2000–400) = √1600 = 40 → CV = 20/40 × 100 = 50%

S: Mean = √(2600–100) = √2500 = 50 → CV = 10/50 × 100 = 20%

Ascending order of CV: S(20%) < Q(30%) < P(40%) < R(50%), i.e. D, B, A, C (Option 2).

 

Q.23

Two students contested in an election in a college. One of the students got 65% of the total valid votes. There were 15% invalid votes. If there were 18000 total votes, find the number of valid votes got by the other student.

1.  5355   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  5500

3.  5300

4.  5450

Answer: 1

Explanation: Invalid votes = 15 % of 18000 = 2700.

Valid votes = 15300.

One student got 65 % of 15300 = 9945.

Other student got 35 % of 15300 = 5355.

 

Q.24

Which of the following are not the methods for “in-situ” conservation of Biodiversity?

A. Zoo

B. National Park

C. Botanical Garden

D. Seed Bank

E. Wildlife Sanctuary

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A, C and E Only

2.  B, C and E Only

3.  B and D Only

4.  A, C and D Only   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: In-situ conservation occurs in natural habitats (National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries). Ex-situ methods include Zoos, Botanical Gardens and Seed Banks.

 

Q.25

Arrange the following substances in increasing order of their pH (lower to higher pH) values:

A. Seawater

B. Human Blood

C. Lemon Juice

D. Milk

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  D, C, A, B

2.  C, D, B, A   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  A, D, B, C

4.  A, B, D, C

Answer: 2

Explanation: Approximate pH values: Lemon juice ≈ 2–3, Milk ≈ 6.5–6.7, Human blood ≈ 7.4, Seawater ≈ 8.1. Ascending order: C < D < B < A.

 

Q.26

Millennium Development Goal-4 was aimed at reducing the mortality rate among children under 5 years of age by:

1.  75%

2.  50%

3.  1/3 rd

4.  2/3 rd   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: MDG-4 targeted a two-thirds reduction in the under-five mortality rate between 1990 and 2015.

 

Q.27

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Diseases)          LIST-II (Vector)

A. Malaria        I. Phlebotomus argentipes

B. Dengue        II. Anopheles mosquito (female)

C. Encephalitis  III. Aedes Aegypti

D. Kala-azar      IV. Culex

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

2.  A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

4.  A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Answer: 2

Explanation: Malaria – female Anopheles; Dengue – Aedes aegypti; Japanese Encephalitis – Culex; Kala-azar – Phlebotomus argentipes (sandfly).

 

Q.28

In the context of computers, which of the following statements A–D are true?

A. CPU stands for Computer Processing Unit and Control Unit is part of CPU.

B. Solid State Drive (SSD) is a fast storage device that uses flash memory and has no moving parts.

C. Hard Disk Drive (HDD) is a storage device that uses spinning disks to store and retrieve data.

D. A touch screen is a unique device that functions as both an input and output device.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  B, C and D Only   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  A, C and D Only

3.  A and B Only

4.  A, B, C, D

Answer: 1

Explanation: A is incorrect (CPU = Central Processing Unit). B, C and D are correct statements.

 

Q.29

Which of the following are key features of positivist approach to research?

A. Reliance on qualitative techniques

B. Hypothetico-Deductive Model

C. Replicability

D. Subjective Analysis/Interpretation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  B and C Only   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  C and D Only

3.  A and D Only

4.  A and B Only

Answer: 1

Explanation: Positivism emphasises the hypothetico-deductive method, objectivity, quantification and replicability. It rejects subjective interpretation and primarily qualitative techniques.

 

Q.30

According to the book “The Dynamics of Mass Communication” by Dominick (1990), what are the main functions of media?

A. Surveillance

B. Agriculture based knowledge

C. Interpretation

D. Geo-Climatic information

E. Entertainment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  B and D Only

2.  A, B and C Only

3.  A, C and E Only   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  B, C and D Only

Answer: 3

Explanation: Dominick lists the primary functions of mass media as surveillance (of the environment), interpretation (correlation), and entertainment (plus transmission of culture/socialisation).

 

Q.31

The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016 defines Inclusive Education as a system of education wherein:

A. Disabled students are arranged in separate classrooms.

B. Students with and without disabilities learn together.

C. Different curricula are prescribed for learners with and without disabilities

D. System of teaching and learning is suitably adapted to meet the learning needs of different types of students with disabilities

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A, B and C Only

2.  B and C Only

3.  C and D Only

4.  B and D Only   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: Inclusive education under the RPwD Act means students with and without disabilities learn together in the same classroom with suitable adaptations in teaching-learning processes.

 

Q.32

Choose the simple hardwares from the following used by the teacher in classroom instruction:

A. Epidiascope

B. Slide projector

C. Teaching machine

D. Television

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A and C Only

2.  A and B Only   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  C and D Only

4.  C and B Only

Answer: 2

Explanation: Epidiascope and slide projector are traditional simple projection hardware commonly used in classroom instruction. Teaching machines and television are more complex/electronic devices.

 

Q.33

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Fallacy) LIST-II (Reason)

A. Sādhāraṇa     I. The middle term is non-exclusive.

B. Svarūpasiddha           II. The middle term is too wide.

C. Asādhāraṇa   III. The minor term is not real.

D. Anupasaṃhāri           IV. The middle term is too narrow.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

3.  A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

4.  A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Answer: 1

Explanation: In Nyāya logic: Sādhāraṇa (too wide middle term), Svarūpasiddha (minor term unreal), Asādhāraṇa (too narrow), Anupasaṃhāri (non-exclusive middle term).

 

Q.34

Which of the following is the correct order of steps in a general lesson plan?

A. Recapitulation

B. Linking previous knowledge

C. Content selection

D. Formulating objectives

E. Presentation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  E, C, B, A, D

2.  D, E, B, A, C

3.  D, C, B, E, A   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  B, C, D, E, A

Answer: 3

Explanation: Standard sequence: Formulate objectives → Select content → Link previous knowledge → Presentation → Recapitulation.

 

Q.35

Identify the correct order of the digital communication “Platforms” (A–D) based on the “Actions” (I–IV) given below:

I. “I am attending a live department meeting and sharing my screen.”

II. “I am writing a 1000-word tutorial on how to bake bread.”

III. “I am updating my work experience to attract new recruiters.”

IV. “I am posting a 200-characters thought on a trending news story.”

A. Twitter (X)

B. Blog

C. MS-Teams

D. LinkedIn

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  C, B, D, A   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  D, C, A, B

3.  A, D, B, C

4.  B, A, C, D

Answer: 1

Explanation: Live meeting + screen share → MS-Teams (C); long tutorial → Blog (B); professional experience update → LinkedIn (D); short post on trending topic → Twitter/X (A).

 

Q.36

A researcher divided subjects (participants) into two groups according to gender and then selected members from each group for her sample. What sampling method was the researcher using?

1.  Cluster

2.  Stratified   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  Random

4.  Systematic

Answer: 2

Explanation: Dividing the population into homogeneous subgroups (strata) based on a characteristic (gender) and then sampling from each stratum is stratified sampling.

 

Q.37

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II, according to School Education (NEP 2020):

LIST-I (Education level) LIST-II (Age group)

A. SECONDARY          I. 3–8 years

B. MIDDLE      II. 8–11 years

C. PREPARATORY      III. 14–18 years

D. FOUNDATIONAL   IV. 11–14 years

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2.  A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

3.  A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

4.  A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: NEP 2020 stages: Foundational (3–8 yrs), Preparatory (8–11 yrs), Middle (11–14 yrs), Secondary (14–18 yrs).

 

Q.38

Seymour Cray is widely celebrated as the ‘Father of supercomputing’ because he ______.

1.  designed the first commercial microprocessor (the INTEL 4004) in 1971.

2.  developed the first electronic, general-purpose digital computer (the ENIAC) in 1945.

3.  invented the fundamental technologies that allow us to navigate the Internet today.

4.  Designed a series of machines that remained the fastest in the world for over three decades, roughly from 1964 to 1996.   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: Seymour Cray designed a succession of supercomputers (CDC 6600, Cray-1, etc.) that dominated the high-performance computing field for decades.

 

Q.39

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Researcher Type)           LIST-II (Description)

A. Ethnographic I. Solves immediate problems in a specific setting, often collaboratively (e.g., improving classroom management)

B. Fundamental II. Seeks to understand cultures and communities in their natural setting through immersion, often employing qualitative methods.

C. Action          III. Focuses on collecting and analyzing numerical data to describe, predict, or control variables of interest

D. Quantitative  IV. Primarily aims to test existing theories or build new ones

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

2.  A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

3.  A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Answer: 3

Explanation: Ethnographic → immersion in natural settings; Fundamental → theory testing/building; Action → solving immediate practical problems; Quantitative → numerical data analysis.

 

Q.40

In IQ Test measure, what are the different aspects of intelligence?

A. Verbal Intelligence

B. Emotional Intelligence

C. Numerical Intelligence

D. Linguistic Intelligence

E. Spatial Intelligence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  B, D and E only

2.  A and C only

3.  B, C and D only

4.  A, C and E only   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: Traditional IQ tests primarily measure verbal, numerical and spatial (or performance) intelligence. Emotional intelligence is a separate construct.

 

Q.41

In a certain code language ‘DEVELOPMENT’ is written as ‘CFUFKPONDOS’. How ‘REVOLUTION’ shall be coded in that language?

1.  QFUKPVJSNO

2.  QFKUPVJSNO

3.  QFUPKVSJNO   ✓ Correct Answer

4.  QFPUKSVNJO

Answer: 3   [CORRECTED as per official key]

Explanation: The cipher shifts each letter of the plaintext by one position in an alternating pattern – odd-numbered letters shift back by 1 (–1), even-numbered letters shift forward by 1 (+1): D→C(–1), E→F(+1), V→U(–1), E→F(+1), L→K(–1), O→P(+1), P→O(–1), M→N(+1), E→D(–1), N→O(+1), T→S(–1) = CFUFKPONDOS, which matches the given code. Applying the same odd/even alternating pattern to REVOLUTION (R-E-V-O-L-U-T-I-O-N): R→Q(–1), E→F(+1), V→U(–1), O→P(+1), L→K(–1), U→V(+1), T→S(–1), I→J(+1), O→N(–1), N→O(+1) = QFUPKVSJNO (Option 3).

 

Q.42

Find the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the series given below:

1, 3/2, 2, 5/2, 3, 7/2, ?

1.  5

2.  6

3.  7

4.  4   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: The series is consecutive half-integers: 1, 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5, 4.

 

Q.43

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Communication Theory) LIST-II (Coined / Developed / Formulated By)

A. Cognitive Dissonance I. Denis McQuail

B. The Cultivation         II. Maxwell McCombs and Donald L. Shaw

C. Agenda Setting          III. George Gerbner

D. Democratic-Participant Media IV. L.A. Festinger

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

3.  A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

4.  A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Answer: 1

Explanation: Cognitive Dissonance – Festinger; Cultivation Theory – Gerbner; Agenda-Setting – McCombs & Shaw; Democratic-Participant theory – McQuail.

 

Q.44

Which of the following statements are true?

A. A necessary condition for an event refers to a circumstance in whose absence the event cannot occur.

B. A sufficient condition for an event is a circumstance in whose presence the event must occur.

C. A necessary condition for an event is a circumstance in whose presence the event must occur.

D. A sufficient condition for an event refers to a circumstance in whose absence the event cannot occur.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  B and C Only

2.  B Only

3.  C and D Only

4.  A and B Only   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: Standard definitions: Necessary condition = must be present for the event to occur (absence prevents it). Sufficient condition = if present, the event must occur.

 

Q.45

Arrange the following models of communication, chronologically as per their year of introduction, starting from the earliest:

A. Westley and Maclean

B. Osgood

C. Harold D. Lasswell

D. George Gerbner

E. Theodore M. Newcomb

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.  C, E, B, D, A   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  A, B, C, D, E

3.  E, D, C, B, A

4.  D, B, A, C, E

Answer: 1

Explanation: Chronological order: Lasswell (1948), Newcomb (1953), Osgood (1954), Gerbner (1956), Westley & MacLean (1957).

 

Comprehension (Q.46–Q.50)

Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Our perception of the world is direct, immediate, and effortless, and there is no hint of any intervening operations taking place in the brain. The apparent simplicity of a perception is reinforced by the fact that our perceptions are always accurate. We rarely make mistakes when identifying people by their face or voice or in judging how hot a cup of tea is or in navigating a flight of steps. Moreover, our own perceptions nearly always agree with those of other people. Sounds, sights and smells seem to be “out there” in the world, not constructed in our head.

Despite appearances to the contrary, our perceptual world is constructed in the brain by a huge mass of neurons performing complex, but hidden, operations. Three observations hint at the complexity of the brain processes involved in perception. First, a large proportion of the brain’s most highly developed structure, the cerebral cortex, is devoted entirely to perception. Vision alone consumes over half of the neurons in the cortex. Second, despite the complexity and power of modern computer technology, computer scientists have not yet succeeded in building general-purpose systems with the perceptual proficiency of even an infant. Third, as a result of brain damage through injury or disease, a small number of unfortunate individuals suffer deficits in their perceptual capabilities.

Q.46

The structure of the brain that is highly developed, is called the:

1.  neuron

2.  cerebral cortex   ✓ Correct Answer

3.  vision

4.  perceptual proficiency

Answer: 2

Explanation: The passage explicitly states that a large proportion of the highly developed cerebral cortex is devoted to perception.

 

Q.47

As per the given passage General-purpose computer systems do NOT have:

1.  perceptual proficiency   ✓ Correct Answer

2.  power to think

3.  any feelings

4.  vision

Answer: 1

Explanation: The passage notes that computer scientists have not yet succeeded in building general-purpose systems with the perceptual proficiency of even an infant.

 

Q.48

At the surface level, perception seems to be simple by nature because it is:

1.  always complex

2.  always rapid

3.  always incorrect

4.  always accurate   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: The passage begins by stating that perception appears direct, immediate, effortless and “always accurate.”

 

Q.49

More than fifty percent of the neurons in the cortex are dedicated to:

1.  Emotions

2.  Injury

3.  Perception

4.  Vision   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: The passage states: “Vision alone consumes over half of the neurons in the cortex.”

 

Q.50

Some persons suffer from deficits in their capability to perceive because of:

1.  computers

2.  nutrition

3.  cultural background

4.  brain damage   ✓ Correct Answer

Answer: 4

Explanation: The passage concludes that a small number of individuals suffer perceptual deficits as a result of brain damage through injury or disease.