KARANATA SET ENGLISH 2024

Q.1 Who among the following is the most gifted writer of the interlude?

1.            Chester

2.            John Heywood

3.            Ben Jonson

4.            Seneca

Answer: 2

Explanation: John Heywood is regarded as the most gifted writer of the interlude tradition.

 

Q.2 Which of the following is chronologically arranged?

1.            Dr Faustus, An Enemy of the People, Macbeth, She Stoops to Conquer

2.            Dr Faustus, Macbeth, She Stoops to Conquer, An Enemy of the People

3.            Macbeth, Dr Faustus, She Stoops to Conquer, An Enemy of the People

4.            An Enemy of the People, Dr Faustus, Macbeth, She Stoops to Conquer

Answer: 2

Explanation: The order reflects historical chronology of the plays’ composition.

 

Q.3 The new type of tragedy that became prominent after the restoration and of which Dryden was one of the most skilful exponents is

1.            The Masque

2.            The Farce

3.            The Melodrama

4.            The Heroic play

Answer: 4

Explanation: Dryden popularised the Heroic Play during the Restoration period.

 

Q.4 Shaw's fundamental aim in his drama was

1.            to entertain his audience

2.            to preach his audience

3.            to bettering of the lot of humanity

4.            to educate by entertaining

Answer: 3

Explanation: Shaw used drama as a vehicle for social reform and improvement of humanity.

 

Q.5 Match the following and choose the correct option given below: 

List - I 

a) The Way of the World 

b) The Murder in the Cathedral 

c) The Caucasian chalk circle 

d) Waiting for Godot 

List - II 

i. Epic theatre 

ii. Absurd Drama 

iii. Comedy of manners 

iv. Poetic drama 

1. a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii 

2. a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i 

3. a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i 

4. a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv 

Answer: 1

Explanation: The plays correctly correspond to their dramatic forms.

 

Q.6 The outstanding trait of Asif Currimbhoy's plays is

1.            Magical realism

2.            Surrealism

3.            Social realism

4.            Psychological insight

Answer: 3

Explanation: Currimbhoy is known for his strong social realism.

 

Q.7 Which play of Samuel Beckett is a static representation without structure or development, using only meandering, seemingly incoherent dialogue to suggest despair of a society and mankind?

1.            Endgame

2.            Krapp's Last Tape

3.            Five Finger Examiner

4.            Waiting for Godot

Answer: 4

Explanation: Waiting for Godot exemplifies the Theatre of the Absurd.

 

Q.8 Which play of Girish Karnad proved how Indian English Drama could revitalize itself by employing experimental models?

1.            Tara

2.            Tughlaq

3.            Kamala

4.            The Post Master

Answer: 2

Explanation: Tughlaq blends history with modern political concerns.

 

Q.9 Who is considered the father of modern realistic drama?

1.            Bertolt Brecht

2.            Anton Chekhov

3.            Henrik Johan Ibsen

4.            Samuel Beckett

Answer: 3

Explanation: Ibsen pioneered modern realistic drama.

 

Q.10 Who has the distinct honour of being the first African American Woman to have a play produced on Broadway?

1.            Lorraine Hansberry

2.            Alice Childress

3.            Jocelyn Bioh

4.            Tony Morrison

Answer: 1

Explanation: Lorraine Hansberry’s A Raisin in the Sun achieved this distinction.

 

Q.11 Who said "Poetry begins with delight and ends in wisdom"?

1.            Philip Sidney

2.            Emily Dickinson

3.            Robert Frost

4.            Sir Thomas Wyatt

Answer: 3

Explanation: The quotation is by Robert Frost.

 

Q.12 Shakespearean sonnet has the rhyme scheme of

1.            abab cdcd efef gg

2.            abba abba cde cde

3.            abba abba cdc dcd

4.            abab bcbc cdcd ee

Answer: 1

Explanation: This is the standard Shakespearean sonnet structure.

 

Q.13 Imitation of classical Greek and Roman concepts is one of the main characteristics of

1.            Elizabethan Poetry

2.            Victorian Poetry

3.            Neoclassical Poetry

4.            Romantic Poetry

Answer: 3

Explanation: Neoclassicism emphasized classical imitation.

 

Q.14 The statement "A great thinker is capable of being in uncertainties, mysteries, doubts, without any irritable reaching after fact and reason" is made by

1.            P. B. Shelley

2.            John Keats

3.            Wordsworth

4.            Coleridge

Answer: 2

Explanation: This defines Keats’s concept of Negative Capability.

 

Q.15 One of the following poets uses the certainties, the pointlessness and violence he sees in the animals to clarify and intensify human experience. He is

1.            Philip Larkin

2.            Thomas Gunn

3.            John Wain

4.            Ted Hughes

Answer: 4

Explanation: Ted Hughes frequently uses animal imagery.

 

Q.16 The Poem "The Thought Fox" is penned by

1.            Judith Wright

2.            Sylvia Plath

3.            Philip Larkin

4.            Ted Hughes

Answer: 4

Explanation: The Thought Fox is a famous poem by Ted Hughes.

 

Q.17 The title of the play "A Raisin in the Sun" by Lorraine Hansberry is taken from the poem of Langston Hughes called

1.            "We are Cool"

2.            "The Negro Speaks of Rivers"

3.            "Harlem" or "A Dream Deferred"

4.            "Those Winter Sundays"

Answer: 3

Explanation: The phrase comes from Hughes’s poem Harlem.

 

Q.18 "God's in his heaven – All's right with the world" – is taken from one of the following poems of Browning. That is

1.            Andrea Del Sarto

2.            Pippa Passes

3.            Fra Lippo Lippi

4.            My Last Duchess

Answer: 2

Explanation: The line appears in Pippa Passes.

 

Q.19 The sonnet was introduced to England in the sixteenth century by

1.            Petrarch

2.            Sir Philip Sidney

3.            Michael Drayton

4.            Sir Thomas Wyatt

Answer: 4

Explanation: Sir Thomas Wyatt introduced the sonnet form to England.

 

Q.20 Match the Indian poets with their racial backgrounds and choose the correct option:

a) Nissim Ezekiel

b) Dom Moraes

c) Jussawalla

d) Eunice de Souza

i. Parsee 

ii. Goan Christian 

iii. Anglo-Indian 

iv. Jew 

1. a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii 

2. a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv 

3. a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii 

4. a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i 

Answer: 1

Explanation: The poets correctly correspond to their backgrounds.

 

Q.21 Jane Austen's novels are often characterised by their focus on

1.            Historical events

2.            Personal fantasy

3.            Social commentary and personal relationships

4.            Social responsibility and personal achievement

Answer: 3

Explanation: Jane Austen’s novels focus on social manners, class, and personal relationships.

 

Q.22 In Thomas Hardy's Tess of the d'Urbervilles, Angel Clare represents

1.            Proud and loyal

2.            Brooding and protective

3.            Idealistic and conflicted

4.            Charismatic and reform-minded

Answer: 3

Explanation: Angel Clare is idealistic but morally conflicted.

 

Q.23 Match the following and choose the correct answer:

a) To Hell with Dying

b) The Color Purple

c) Meridian

d) The Temple of My Familiar

i. 1982 

ii. 1989 

iii. 1976 

iv. 1988 

1. a - iv, b - i, c - iii, d - ii 

2. a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i 

3. a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i 

4. a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii 

Answer: 1

Explanation: The works match correctly with their years of publication.

 

Q.24 "Purple Hibiscus" is the story narrated by a 15-year-old _____

1.            Amaka

2.            Eugene

3.            Kambili

4.            Beatrice

Answer: 3

Explanation: Purple Hibiscus is narrated by Kambili.

 

Q.25 Extremely short stories, usually under 1,000 words, that pack an impactful narrative punch in a limited space are called _____

1.            Punch Fiction

2.            Flash Fiction

3.            Meta Fiction

4.            Impact Fiction

Answer: 2

Explanation: Flash fiction refers to very short stories.

 

Q.26 In "A Passage to India", where does fielding rediscover the form and harmony that he found lacking in the "muddle" of the Indian Landscape?

1.            Dutch Landscape painting

2.            Classical Music

3.            The Swiss Alps

4.            Venetian Architecture

Answer: 4

Explanation: Fielding finds harmony in Venetian architecture.

 

Q.27 Which of the following is the correct statement regarding plot and narrative?

1.            Plot focuses on events, while narrative focuses on the storytelling process

2.            Plot includes the way the story is told, while narrative includes external action and conflicts

3.            Plot encompasses the overall story, while narrative encompasses relationships between events

4.            Plot is concerned with "how the story is told", while narrative is concerned with "What story is told"

Answer: 1

Explanation: Plot deals with events; narrative concerns how they are presented.

 

Q.28 "Did I request thee, Maker, from my clay To mould me man? Did I solicit thee From darkness to promote me?"

Which nineteenth-Century work bears these lines from Paradise Lost as epigraph?

1.            Wuthering Heights

2.            Frankenstein

3.            Don Juan

4.            Jude the Obscure

Answer: 2

Explanation: Frankenstein opens with an epigraph from Paradise Lost.

 

Q.29 Who among the following Dickens characters, appears as a ghost?

1.            Daniel Quilp

2.            Doro Spenlow

3.            Esther Summerson

4.            Jacob Marley

Answer: 4

Explanation: Jacob Marley appears as a ghost in A Christmas Carol.

 

Q.30. "Many years later, as he faced the firing squad, Colonel Aureliano Buendia won to remember that distant afternoon when his father took him to discover ice. At that time Macondo was a village of twenty houses built on the bank of a river of clear water that ran along a bed of polished stones, which were white and enormous, like prehistoric eggs. The world was so recent that many things lacked names, and in order to indicate them it was necessary to point" 

The above passage exhibits the characteristics of 

1. Pulp Fiction 

2. Magical Realism 

3. Ultra Realism 

4. Snuff Fiction 

Answer: 2

Explanation: The passage is a classic example of Magical Realism.

 

Q.31 Who among the following has written the essay "The Indian Jugglers"?

1.            Thomas Love Peacock

2.            William Hazlitt

3.            Thomas de Quincey

4.            Charles Lamb

Answer: 2

Explanation: The essay was written by William Hazlitt.

 

Q.32 The biography which was treated as an imaginative art in which invented dialogues, interior monologues and other techniques borrowed from the novel is known as ____

1.            new biography

2.            neobiography

3.            biography novelle

4.            biography novella

Answer: 1

Explanation: The term “new biography” was popularised by Lytton Strachey.

 

Q.33 Who started the periodical Rambler?

1.            Oliver Goldsmith

2.            Samuel Johnson

3.            James Boswell

4.            Edmund Burke

Answer: 2

Explanation: The Rambler was started by Samuel Johnson.

 

Q.34 The Dictionary of English language by Samuel Johnson was published in the year ____

1.            1752

2.            1754

3.            1755

4.            1760

Answer: 3

Explanation: Johnson’s Dictionary was published in 1755

 

Q.35. Match the following and choose the correct answer: 

a) Francis Bacon

b) Joseph Addison

c) Richard Steele

d) Charles Lamb

i. The Tatler

ii. Essays of Elia 

iii. Essays  

iv. The Spectator 

1. a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii 

2. a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii 

3. a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv 

4. a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i 

Answer: 2

Explanation: The essays and authors are correctly matched.

 

Q.36 In non-fiction writing the technique considerable is _____

1.            Observational writing

2.            Analytical thinking

3.            Reflective narrative

4.            All of the above

Answer: 4

Explanation: All listed techniques are used in non-fiction.

 

Q.37 In a persuasive non-fiction the technique used shall be _____

1.            informational writing

2.            Argumentative or opinion-based writing

3.            Story telling-style nonfiction

4.            Vivid description of people, places or things

Answer: 2

Explanation: Persuasive writing relies on argument and opinion.

 

Q.38 Which among the following books is the classic example for self-help and advice?

1.            Man's Search for Meaning

2.            The 5 AM Club

3.            The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People

4.            How to Win Friends and Influence People

Answer: 4

Explanation: Dale Carnegie’s book is a classic self-help text.

 

Q.39 Who described 'Pamphlet' as 'a short piece of polemical writing, printed in the form of a booklet and aimed at a large public'?

1.            Francis Bacon

2.            Bernard Shaw

3.            George Orwell

4.            Bertrand Russell

Answer: 3

Explanation: George Orwell provided this definition.

 

Q.40 Match the following and choose the correct answer: 

a) Memoirs

b) Essays

c) Biographics

d) Philosophy

i. Accounts of individual life 

ii. Exploration of ideas, ethics and principles 

iii. Autobiographical narratives 

iv. Personal, reflective or analytical writing 

1. a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i 

2. a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i 

3. a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii 

4. a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii 

Answer: 4

Explanation: The literary forms are correctly matched.

 

Q.41 Which of the following is NOT true about morpheme? 

1. It is the smallest unit of language that carries meaning 

2. It combines with other morphemes to form words 

3. It cannot be further divided into smaller meaningful parts 

4. It is the study of the relationships between linguistic forms 

Answer: 4

Explanation: That definition belongs to morphology, not morpheme.

 

Q.42 Match the following and choose the correct answer: 

a) Behavioural theory

b) Universal grammar

c) Cognitive theory

d) Interactive theory

i. Michael Long

ii. Jean Piaget 

iii. John Watson  

iv. Noam Chomsky 

1. a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i 

2. a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii 

3. a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii 

4. a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i 

Answer: 1

Explanation: The theorists are correctly associated with theories.

 

Q.43. Here are the properties of human language 

a) Displacement 

b) Arbitrariness 

c) Signals refer to specific objects or concepts 

d) Productivity 

Choose the correct combination: 

1. Only a and b are correct 

2. Only a, b and c are correct 

3. Only a, b and d are correct 

4. Only c and d are correct 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Displacement, arbitrariness and productivity are key features.

 

Q.44 ______ blends individual reception with socially shared cultural knowledge in his notion of the interpretive community

1.            Noam Chomsky

2.            Stanley Fish

3.            Piaget

4.            Steven Pinker

Answer: 2

Explanation: Stanley Fish proposed interpretive communities.

 

Q.45 Identify the sentence with the correct use of ellipsis

1.            She said that ...... she would come, but she didn't

2.            He was tired ...... he had been working all day

3.            The cake was delicious ...... we all loved it

4.            I'm going to the store ...... need anything?

Answer: 3

Explanation: The ellipsis correctly replaces omitted words.

 

Q.46 Which of the following concepts refers to a group of people who share common goals, interests and specialized language conventions that shape their communication?

1.            Stylistic Variation

2.            Sociolects

3.            Code-Switching

4.            Heteroglossia

Answer: 2

Explanation: Sociolects refer to language varieties of social groups.

 

Q.47 Parellelism in syntax creates rhythm and balance in language by repeating ________

1.            Chiasmus

2.            Anaphora

3.            Antithesis

4.            Parataxis

Answer: 2

Explanation: Anaphora involves repetition of structure.

 

Q.48 In, "She sang so beautifully that even the birds paused to listen", which type of clause emphasizes her singing?

1.            Adverbial clause

2.            Noun clause

3.            Dependent clause

4.            Relative clause

Answer: 1

Explanation: The clause modifies the verb “sang”.

 

Q.49 Identify the sentence with a misplaced modifier

1.            Running through the park, the flowers looked beautiful

2.            The chef served the delicious cake on a shiny silver plate

3.            Carefully crafted, the artist displayed her latest masterpiece

4.            With excitement, the concert tickets were handed out to the attendees

Answer: 1

Explanation: The modifier incorrectly refers to “flowers”.

 

Q.50 Choose the appropriate sentence that demonstrates a conditional type 3

1.            If I will go to the party, I would have met him

2.            If I had gone to the party, I will meet him

3.            If I had gone to the party, I would have met him

4.            If I would go to the party, I will have met him

Answer: 3

Explanation: Type 3 conditionals refer to unreal past situations.

 

Q.51 When did the Official Language Act come into effect?

1.            January 26, 1965

2.            January 26, 1964

3.            January 26, 1963

4.            January 26, 1961

Answer: 1

Explanation: The Official Languages Act, 1963 came into force on 26 January 1965, allowing continued use of English for official purposes alongside Hindi.

 

Q.52 The institutions supported by the East India Company taught in

a) Sanskrit and Persian

b) Either Sanskrit or Persian

c) Sanskrit only

d) Persian only

1.            Only d is correct

2.            Only c is correct

3.            Only b is correct

4.            a and b are correct

Answer: 1

Explanation: ADD SCORE

 

Q.53 What is the view of many Indians towards English?

1.            It is seen as a tool of elitism and colonialism

2.            It is considered the language of the common people

3.            It is irrelevant in modern India

4.            It is viewed as a threat to national security

Answer: 1

Explanation: English is often viewed critically as a colonial legacy associated with elitism, though it remains widely used.

 

Q.54 Which of the following is not a notable novel by J. M. Coetzee?

1.            Dusklands

2.            Foe

3.            Age of Iron

4.            The Birthday Party

Answer: 4

Explanation: The Birthday Party is a play by Harold Pinter, not a novel by Coetzee.

 

Q.55 What is the role of English in India today? 

1. It is no longer used in business, government and media 

2. It is the language of instruction only in rural areas 

3. It is widely spoken and understood throughout the country 

4. It is only used by the elite class 

Answer: 3

Explanation: English functions as a link language in administration, education, media, and commerce.

 

Q.56 What was the role of Indian clerks and administrators in the use of English during the colonial period in India? 

1. Indian clerks and administrators used English alongside Indian languages during the colonial period in India. 

2. Indian clerks and administrators did not use English during the colonial period in India. 

3. Indian clerks and administrators were not involved in the use of English during the colonial period in India. 

4. None of the above 

Answer: 1

Explanation: Indian clerks used English for official work while continuing to use native languages socially.

 

Q.57 What are the impacts of policy change in favour of English education in India during the colonial period? 

a) It did not have any impact on the languages in India during the colonial period 

b) It expanded the use of English in India during the colonial period 

c) It affected the use of Sanskrit language 

d) It led to the growth of an English speaking secretarial and professional class 

1. Only a is correct 

2. b and c are correct 

3. a and d are correct 

4. b, c and d are correct 

Answer: 4

Explanation: English education expanded English use, marginalized classical languages, and created a colonial middle class.

 

Q.58 What was the impact of the use of English on Indian languages during the colonial period? 

1. The use of English had no impact on Indian languages during the colonial period 

2. The use of English led to the decline and marginalization of Indian languages during the colonial period 

3. The use of English promoted the development and preservation of Indian languages during the colonial period 

4. The use of English had a positive impact on Indian languages during the colonial period. 

Answer: 2

Explanation: English dominance led to decline of indigenous languages in administration and education.

 

Q.59 What was the language policy of the Indian National Congress during the colonial period? 

1. The Indian National Congress supported the use of Indian languages exclusively during the colonial period 

2. The Indian National Congress supported the use of English exclusively during the colonial period: 

3. The Indian National Congress supported the use of Hindi as the national language during the colonial period. 

4. The Indian National Congress supported the use of multiple national languages, including English, during the colonial period. 

Answer: 4

Explanation: INC adopted a pluralistic approach, recognizing English for national unity.

 

Q.60 English is lingua franca in ______ 

a) Kerala, Meghalaya, Mizoram 

b) Karnataka, Mizoram, Maharashtra 

c) Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram 

d) Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram 

1. Only a is correct 

2. b and c are correct 

3. Only d is correct 

4. Only c is correct 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Mizoram use English as the main link language.

 

Q.61 Stuart Hall's original argument in cultural studies was that the media were tools to 

1. Persuade people 

2. Keep the powerful in control 

3. Promote understanding among people 

4. Reduce uncertainties 

Answer: 2

Explanation: Hall saw media as instruments of ideological power and hegemony.

 

Q.62 Stuart Hall drew many of his ideas from 

1. Marxism 

2. Communism 

3. Socialism 

4. Democratic ideas 

Answer: 1

Explanation: Cultural Studies is deeply influenced by Marxist theory.

 

Q.63 A key assumption of cultural studies is that people are part of a hierarchical structure of 

1. Culture 

2. Mediated communication 

3. Power 

4. Ideology 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Power relations shape cultural meaning and representation.

 

Q.64 According to cultural studies, ________ in our culture is strongly affected by the media 

1. industry 

2. hierarchy 

3. advertising 

4. meaning 

Answer: 4

Explanation: Media actively constructs meaning, not merely reflects reality.

 

Q.65 What are the four types of cultural theory? 

a) Hierarchical, Individualist, Egalitarian and Fatalist 

b) Egalitarian, Utopian, Colonial and Racial 

c) Universal, Egalitarian, Feminis and Environmental 

d) Ecological, Modern, Fatalist and Universal 

1. Only a is correct 

2. b and d are correct 

3. c and d are correct 

4. Only d is correct 

Answer: 1

Explanation: This classification comes from Cultural Theory (Douglas).

 

Q.66 Counter-hegemony is a process that ________ 

a) Glorifies the status quo 

b) Attempts to sustain hegemonic power 

c) Challenges capitalism 

d) Challenges the status quo and attempts to dismantle hegemonic power 

1. Only a is correct 

2. b and c are correct 

3. a and c are correct 

4. Only d is correct

Answer: 4

Explanation: Counter-hegemony resists dominant ideological control.

 

Q.67 In cultural and media studies 'decoding' refers to: 

a) The process of interpreting the meaning of a text by breaking it down 

b) Involvement of understanding others based on the information given in a message 

c) The way in which the texts can be disassembled for meaning 

d) The way in which the texts are put together 

1. Only b is correct 

2. Only d is correct 

3. a, b and c are correct 

4. c and d are correct 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Decoding refers to how audiences interpret and negotiate meaning.

 

Q.68 In Cultural Studies, 'audience' refers to: 

a) A group of people who are present in a show 

b) A group of people who produce a show 

c) A group of people who perform in a show 

d) A group of people who consume in a show 

1. Only c is correct 

2. Only b is correct 

3. a and d are correct 

4. b and d are correct 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Audiences actively consume and interpret texts.

 

Q.69 Match the books with authors: 

a) Stuart Hall

b) Richard Hoggart 

c) E.P. Thomson

d) Raymond Williams

i. Culture and Society

ii. Customs in Common: Studies in Traditional Popular Culture

iii. The Uses of Literacy   

iv. Media and Cultural Studies: Key Works 

1. a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i 

2. a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii 

3. a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii 

4. a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv 

Answer: 1

Explanation:

•             Hall – Media and Cultural Studies

•             Hoggart – The Uses of Literacy

•             Thompson – Customs in Common

•             Williams – Culture and Society

 

Q.70 Cultural studies originated in ______ and some critics think it cannot be effectively extended to other cultures 

1. U.S. 

2. Britain 

3. Australia 

4. Germany

Answer: 2

Explanation: Originated at the Birmingham Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies. 

 

Q.71 According to Plato, Mimesis means 

1. Narration 

2. Recognition 

3. Discourse 

4. Imitation

Answer: 4

Explanation: Mimesis = imitation of reality.

 

Q.72 According to Longinus, sublimity is 

1. The echo of the mind 

2. The reflection of passion 

3. The echo of the greatness of soul 

4. The proper use of reason 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Sublimity reflects greatness of soul.

 

Q.73 The statement "her world is brazen, the poets only deliver a golden", is made by 

1. Philip Sidney 

2. Samuel Johnson 

3. William Wordsworth 

4. John Keats 

Answer: 1

Explanation: From Philip Sidney’s Apology for Poetry.

 

Q.74 Who called Imagination as Esemplastic Power? 

1. Lord Byron 

2. T.S. Eliot 

3. P. B. Shelley 

4. Samuel Coleridge 

Answer: 4

Explanation: Coined by S. T. Coleridge.

 

Q.75 What does I. A. Richards mean by the term 'synaesthesis'? 

1. A harmony and equilibrium of impulses 

2. A harmony between sound and rhythm 

3. A harmony between words and music 

4. A harmony between body and soul 

Answer: 1

Explanation: A balance of emotional impulses.

 

Q.76 Who said "A poet is a man speaking to men"? 

1. John Dryden 

2. W. B. Yeats 

3. William Wordsworth 

4. T.S. Eliot 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Wordsworth, Preface to Lyrical Ballads.

 

 

Q.77 Who made the following comment: 'Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world' and 'poetry records the best and happiest moments of the happiest and best minds'? 

1. John Dryden 

2. T. S. Eliot 

3. S. T. Coleridge 

4. P. B. Shelley 

Answer: 4

Explanation: P. B. Shelley, A Defence of Poetry.

 

Q.78 A. C. Bradley's *Shakespearean Tragedy* was published in the year ________. 

1. 1903 

2. 1904 

3. 1905 

4. 1906 

Answer: 2

Explanation: A. C. Bradley, 1904.

 

Q.79 Axel's Castle was written by 

1. F. R. Leavis 

2. T. S. Eliot 

3. Edmund Wilson 

4. William Empson 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Edmund Wilson.

 

 

Q.80 According to Eliot, Poetry is 

1. expression of personality 

2. escape from personality 

3. representation of personality 

4. validation of personality 

Answer: 2

Explanation: Poetry is an escape from personality, not self-expression.

 

Q.81 Identify the correct group of the exponents of the Reader-Response Theory on the Reception Theory. 

1. E. D. Hirsch, Stanley Fish, Patrocinio P Schweickart, Jonathan Culler 

2. J. Hillis Miller, Michel Foucault, Terry Eagleton, Stephen Greenblatt 

3. Rene Wellek, Roman Jakobson, Edward Said, J. Hillis Miller 

4. Michel Foucault, Edward Said, Rene Wellek, J. Hillis Miller 

Answer: 1

Explanation: Hirsch, Fish, Schweickart, Culler.

 

Q.82 Match the following and choose the correct option: 

a) T. S. Eliot

b) John Keats

c) Saussure

d) Stephen Greenblatt

i. Linguistics

ii. New Historicism  

iii. Historical sense 

iv. Negative capability 

1. a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i 

2. a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii 

3. a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i 

4. a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv 

Answer: 2

Explanation:

•             Eliot – Historical sense

•             Keats – Negative capability

•             Saussure – Linguistics

•             Greenblatt – New Historicism

 

Q.83 Feminism is 'an alignment of political interests', according to 

1. Simon de Beauvoir and Kate Millet 

2. Rosalind Coward and Virginia Woolf 

3. Rosalind Coward and Michele Barrett 

4. Michele Barrett and Virginia Woolf 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Rosalind Coward & Michele Barrett.

 

Q.84 Choose the correct answer: 

a) Saussure is the father of Modern Linguistics 

b) Saussure favoured langue over parole 

c) Saussure focussed on diachronic study of language 

d) Saussure remarked that the linguistic sign is arbitrary 

1. Only a, b and d are correct 

2. Only b, c and d are correct 

3. Only d, a and c are correct 

4. Only a, b and c are correct 

Answer: 1

Explanation: Saussure emphasized langue, arbitrariness, and modern linguistics.

 

Q.85 In his Problems of Dostoevsky's Poetics, ________ introduced the idea of the polyphonic novel 

1. Viktor Shklovsky 

2. Boris Tomashevsky 

3. Boris Eichenbaum 

4. Mikhail Bakhtin 

Answer: 4

Explanation: Mikhail Bakhtin.

 

Q.86 One of the most important members of the Yale School of Deconstruction is 

1. Jacques Lacan 

2. Roland Barthes 

3. Michel Foucault 

4. Paul de Man 

Answer: 4

Explanation: Paul de Man.

 

Q.87 ______ developed their critique of capitalism in terms of the relationship between man and the material world. 

1. Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels 

2. Terry Eagleton and Fredric Jameson 

3. Leon Trotsky and Karl Marx 

4. George Plekhanov and Karl Marx 

Answer: 1

Explanation: Marx & Engels.

 

Q.88 Albert Memmi's classic study ______ analyses the psychology of colonialism and the effect it has upon the coloniser and the colonised 

1. Prospero and Caliban 

2. The Coloniser and the Colonised 

3. White Masks 

4. Discourse on Colonialism

Answer: 2

Explanation: The Coloniser and the Colonised.

 

Q.89 Donald Worster's *Nature's Economy* published in ______ became a textbook for the study of ecological thought down the ages. 

1. 1977 

2. 1976 

3. 1975 

4. 1974 

Answer: 1

Explanation: 1977.

 

Q.90 Kate Millett's ______, situated at the crossroads of literary and cultural criticism and political theory, launched a major criticism of canonical male authors like D. H. Lawrence, Norman Mailer and Henry Miller 

1. Woman's Estate 

2. Sexual Politics 

3. Woman's Fiction 

4. Speaking of Gender 

Answer: 2

Explanation: Sexual Politics.

 

Q.91 Which of the following is a non-probability sampling technique? 

1. Simple random sampling 

2. Stratified sampling 

3. Cluster sampling 

4. Purposive sampling 

Answer: 4

Explanation: Purposive sampling.

 

 

Q.92 Which of the following ethical considerations is particularly important when conducting research involving vulnerable populations, such as children or marginalized communities? 

1. Debriefing 

2. Informed consent 

3. Counter balancing 

4. Double-blind procedure

Answer: 2

Explanation: Informed consent is essential.

 

 

Q.93 A researcher is conducting a study to examine the effects of a new teaching method on student learning outcomes. Which research approach would be most suitable? 

1. Case study 

2. Grounded theory 

3. Correlational theory 

4. Experimental study

Answer: 4

Explanation: Experimental research tests cause and effect.

 

Q.94 Which type of data collection involves observing participants in their natural environment without intervening or manipulating any variables? 

1. Survey 

2. Experiment 

3. Field observation 

4. Focus group

Answer: 3

Explanation: Field observation.

 

Q.95 In Phenomenological Research, what is the primary goal of bracketing? 

1. Eliminating outliers from the data 

2. Removing biases from the researcher's perspective 

3. Conducting statistical analysis 

4. Ensuing participant confidentiality 

Answer: 2

Explanation: Suspending researcher bias.

 

Q.96 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: 

List I 

a) Koha 

b) Ellipsis 

c) Sic 

d) APA 

List II 

i. As in the original. 

ii. Library software 

iii. Social Sciences 

iv. Three dots 

1. a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii 

2. a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv 

3. a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii 

4. a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i 

Answer: 1

Explanation:

Koha–Library software; Ellipsis–Three dots; Sic–As original; APA–Social sciences.

 

Q.97 Which two of the following are legitimate frameworks for setting out a literature review? 

a) Constructing inter textual coherence 

b) Deconstruction of textual coherence 

c) Problematizing the situation 

d) Resolving discovered problems 

1. a and b 

2. b and c 

3. a and c 

4. b and d 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Inter-textual coherence + problematization.

 

Q.98 What is the salami slicing in research ethics? 

I) Publishing the results of a single experiment in more than one journal 

II) Replicating an experiment to validate the results 

III) Reporting the results of a single study in two or more manuscripts 

IV) Using quantitative methods to analyse research data 

1. Only I and III are correct 

2. Only II and IV are correct 

3. Only I and IV are correct 

4. Only III and II are correct 

Answer: 1

Explanation: Publishing one study in multiple papers.

 

Q.99 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using closed questions in a survey? 

1. It reduces the risk of variability in the way answers are recorded 

2. It makes answers easier to process and analyse 

3. They prevent respondents from giving spontaneous, unexpected answer 

4. Closed questions are quicker and easier for respondents to complete 

Answer: 3

Explanation: Closed questions limit spontaneous responses.

 

Q.100 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: 

List I 

a) Diagnostic research 

b) Action research 

c) Phenomenological research 

d) Experimental research 

List II 

i. Manipulation of variables 

ii. Descriptive study 

iii. To find out the 'gap' 

iv. Oriented towards solving a classroom issue 

1. a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i 

2. a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv 

3. a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii 

4. a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i

Answer: 1

Explanation:

Diagnostic–Gap; Action–Classroom solution; Phenomenology–Description; Experimental–Variables.